The Monkey Mantra
Bluelighter
Most of the typical psychedelics are 5HT 2a receptor agonists. This is an autoreceptor, so it's gonna lower the activity of serotonin throughout the brain, right? Can someone clear up how lowering serotonin activity in this case produces a euphoria and body feelings that can be considered somewhat similar to those produced by MDMA? Are there mechanisms the two share, or is the similarity of the feelings entirely coincidental? Does the effect of lowering serotonin in one place just decrease the inhibitory actions of serotonin, whereas MDMA binds and does its thing better different parts of the brain where serotonin has a more stimulatory effect? Do the analgesic effects of mescaline and psilocybin share any mechanistic similarities with the analgesic actions of MDMA? I always assumed MDMA had analgesic effects at least partially due to serotonin release in the Raphe nucleus, but I'm just pullin' that out of my ass, to be honest.
I was just hoping someone could reconcile all the *apparent* paradoxes for me, and I figured this forum might be a better place to ask. I'm fairly familiar with neuroanatomy, and my education is in biochemistry. Please feel free to dumb it down as much as you like, though. If you have any papers you think I should check out, or any papers you'd like me to grab for you for the purpose of this discussion, let me know.
Thanks a ton, guys.
Ever curious,
Greg
I was just hoping someone could reconcile all the *apparent* paradoxes for me, and I figured this forum might be a better place to ask. I'm fairly familiar with neuroanatomy, and my education is in biochemistry. Please feel free to dumb it down as much as you like, though. If you have any papers you think I should check out, or any papers you'd like me to grab for you for the purpose of this discussion, let me know.
Thanks a ton, guys.
Ever curious,
Greg
