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LSD-25 VS. ANALOG. “LSD”

Dr. Trismegistus

Dr. Trismegistus

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Joined
Apr 18, 2026
Messages
119
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Eugene OR

SMOKE AND MIRRORS​

A drug that mirrors, the effects of another drug does not mean that it has the exact same effects it only appears to have the same effects to the user and the observer. When the actual reason is all (smoke and mirrors)

LSD dopamine, receptors heavily influence dopamine D2 and D4personality traits like novelty seeking, risk-taking, and extraversion by modulating reward sensitivity. Serotonin receptors (5-HT) affect conscientiousness and anxiety, while oxytocin receptors influence trust and bonding. Overall, brain chemistry shapes personality by regulating motivation and behavior

Analog LSD lysergamide derivatives like 1P-LSD primarily acts as a 5-HT2A serotonin receptor agonistin the brain. It acts as a "strong partagonist" at this receptor, binding tightly and causing significant alterations in cognition, perception, and mood. It also interacts with other serotonin so they are in fact different and have different effects
 
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1P-LSD is not a "strong partial agonist" at 5-HT2A. The compound it rapidly hydrolyses to, LSD, is.
 
I never said or implied ANY OF THAT lol you go ahead and think that I did if that makes you feel smart.. THAT IS an indirectly reported speech phrase so it’s used to make ASSERTIONS “FEEL” more credible and objective and I feel you need that to seemingly be the case however It was a generalization not my thesis lmfao
 
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Do you have a disorder? This is fast pace and unedited kind of post Either way I didn’t ask for the notes just learn and avoid trying to poke holes 🕳️ In an idea that you didn’t have
 
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@Dr. Trismegistus - Well done on noting that affinity ≠ efficacy. I suspect the term you were fumbling to find is in fact termed 'partial agonism', a term coined by R.P. Stephenson in 1956 as was the concept of efficacy.
 
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I did my best with the brain power I have to work with at the moment haha as long as you get the point and can see where I Fumbled the reason it’s there is so I could get help and other ideas to start a dialogue . (partial agonism) tracks as well as value but it’s still a bit off
 
I have seen ppl say only (WRONG) or (BAD SCIENCE) and show zero evidence of what they think those ppl don’t know anything at all and in scientific method it’s nice to have ppl actually understanding that can help give advice instead of just being obstinate we are supposed to be brothers and sisters in science not just make vague generalizations while being snarky and sarcastic
 
No snark intended - I stated the facts and even took the time to HIGHLIGHT that most people do not get affinity ≠ efficacy.
 
I have yet to even see much of anything where ppl have an open thought, process genuinely speaking on chemistry because they are just looking up facts from non facts and acting like it’s an original thought
 
It's called citing - so while imperfect, at least people can use an index paper and read it's citations and the papers that cite it.

It's just part of the scientific method. No magic here - all is visible to all.
 
Well LSD the OG is not a drug easy to become for me, but ALD-52 and 1p-LSD were. Compared feel like different drugs consistently Was very sad that the source for the first dried up had my preference. 1p is about as good, about slightly different. Brother and sister using that analogy, instead of a nephew or aunt. Definitely not a twin. [both are seen as pro-drugs to LSD afaik ?]

1cp-MIPLA seems to move further away, only one experience, so bit hard to say. Al-LAD clearly has a a nature of its own.
 
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I agree about 1P it’s very close but there is a definite difference but it is Impossible to explain besides the lack of a sole like a clone or something
 
Well, it's a prodrug. The only only related exmple I am aware off took some hours to full hydrolize that propanamide moiety. Based on plasme levels, I should add. The LogP OF 1P will be a bit higher so who is to say that it isn't JUST a prodrug?

Design an experiment. I would go for BOL-148, swap the 2-Br for a 2-18F and form the amides. Then functional MRI WOULD show us what goes on.
 
4DQSAR said:
Well, it's a prodrug. The only only related exmple I am aware off took some hours to full hydrolize that propanamide moiety. Based on plasme levels, I should add. The LogP OF 1P will be a bit higher so who is to say that it isn't JUST a prodrug?

Design an experiment. I would go for BOL-148, swap the 2-Br for a 2-18F and form the amides. Then functional MRI WOULD show us what goes on.
Click to expand...
pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov

Radiobromine-labelled tracers for positron emission tomography: possibilities and pitfalls - PubMed

The use of positron emission tomography (PET) for radionuclide imaging provides better sensitivity, better spatial and temporal resolution and better quantification accuracy in comparison with single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT). One limitation of PET is the predominant use of...
pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov
 
Two problems - you still HAVE the -Br and we know that isn't active and that half-life makes it time-sensitive. I suppose 18O would be better.


I think a Japanese (?) team tritated BOL-148 using nothing more complex than NABT4 back in the 70s. Autoradiography would, one presumes, be adaptable enough for a CT detector to slice and dice.

I gave up collecting papers because science is a process - taking a 'snapshot' is folly.
 
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