You may have accidentally left off the end of that first point, I will remind you:
...Recombinant P4503A4 catalyzed all of the loperamide biotransformation pathways in human liver microsomes, whereas P4502B6 was only responsible for N-dealkylation and N-oxidation routes...
I concede that I did misread that portion of the study initially, and thought it said "ONLY 2B6 was responsible" instead of "2B6 was ONLY responsible"...Thank you for bringing that to my attention.
In light of that evidence, it seems on the surface that loperamide users who take substances which are 2B6 inhibitors should not take the 3A4 inhibitor also...but this is debatable.
Users of loperamide who take 2B6 inhibitors, WITHOUT 3A4 inhibitors, are likely to have a MARKED increase in LPP+ production in vivo, thanks to decreased clearance into the safer metabolites by 2B6...so it can be argued that loperamide users on 2B6 inhibitors *MUST* take 3A4 inhibitors, or risk increased cellular toxicity.
Yes, the dose of loperamide will have to be lowered accordingly, but since it is already such an impotent substance in the real world, I question whether an increase of, say, 25% of oral dose would actually have a very pronounced effect on cardiovascular health, especially if the most pertinent of the toxins being produced is cut by 75%.
All conjecture, of course. I am not a doctor, and I don't "play one on TV", but I do work in the medical profession - and while it would be terrible prescribing practice to suggest use of P450 inhibitors without respective reduction in substrate, I do think it still may be a safer route to take - especially if used as long-term ORT - than to simply allow LPP+ production unhindered.
Ideally, a loperamide user should take a lowered dosage than they usually do - alongside a CYP3A4 inhibitor - to mitigate health risks that they already assume upon themselves from ingesting loperamide regardless.
Or do you disagree with this train of thought? (Anyone?)