pr0d1gy
Bluelighter
Hopefully this question is ADD appropriate.
I just wanted some opinions about a question of mine that has recently come up. After about 5 years of no recreational drug use, I recently decided to try some 25i-nbome. Based on the experiences of close friends, I had the expectation that this was a chemical that had a strongly mood altering aspect. After about 8 experiences in 6 months, I have not personally found any mood alteration. I realize that any drug will produce different effects in individuals, but the absolute lack of mood alteration is astonishing. I've found this to be a wonderfully visual compound; yet every time I have tried it, I just end up in a slightly darker mood waiting for the effects to end so I can go to sleep.
I've been on a rather low dose of amphetamine for about 4 years. Is it possible that the alteration of my neurochemistry this amphetamine use has caused may be playing a role in the strange way I respond to 25i? I thought there might be some association between the fact that 25i's effects are significantly modulated through 5-ht2a and the fact that 5-ht2a modulates dopamine neurons. My thinking was that I may be resistant to any euphoric effects from 25i as a result of my amphetamine use possibly altering the way dopamine neurons would be indirectly modulated by strong 5-ht2a agonism. To me this seems possible if in fact, 5-ht2a's modulation of dopamine plays a significant role in the mood altering effects of this drug.
I'd appreciate any feedback. I'm actually in med school but obviously this sort of stuff is way above me. I've totally given up on this material and tossed it. I'm not going to be messing around with this or any other psychedelics for quite a while; still any answers or feedback would probably be enlightening :D
PS. sorry if I butchered neurochemistry.
I just wanted some opinions about a question of mine that has recently come up. After about 5 years of no recreational drug use, I recently decided to try some 25i-nbome. Based on the experiences of close friends, I had the expectation that this was a chemical that had a strongly mood altering aspect. After about 8 experiences in 6 months, I have not personally found any mood alteration. I realize that any drug will produce different effects in individuals, but the absolute lack of mood alteration is astonishing. I've found this to be a wonderfully visual compound; yet every time I have tried it, I just end up in a slightly darker mood waiting for the effects to end so I can go to sleep.
I've been on a rather low dose of amphetamine for about 4 years. Is it possible that the alteration of my neurochemistry this amphetamine use has caused may be playing a role in the strange way I respond to 25i? I thought there might be some association between the fact that 25i's effects are significantly modulated through 5-ht2a and the fact that 5-ht2a modulates dopamine neurons. My thinking was that I may be resistant to any euphoric effects from 25i as a result of my amphetamine use possibly altering the way dopamine neurons would be indirectly modulated by strong 5-ht2a agonism. To me this seems possible if in fact, 5-ht2a's modulation of dopamine plays a significant role in the mood altering effects of this drug.
I'd appreciate any feedback. I'm actually in med school but obviously this sort of stuff is way above me. I've totally given up on this material and tossed it. I'm not going to be messing around with this or any other psychedelics for quite a while; still any answers or feedback would probably be enlightening :D
PS. sorry if I butchered neurochemistry.