• MDMA &
    Empathogenic
    Drugs

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Is E sexually transmitted?

Guest,

Dont be a troll and please explain why you think it is stupid if you gonna make statements like that. Theoretically, it is possible because MDMA can be found not only in your brain, if you can plug MDMA, you can certainly pass it through sexual intercourse. The question is the quantity and as somebody mentioned it is probably not enough to create a high. If you gonna say something please substantiate your opinion or dont trash the thread for no reason.
 
^But the concentration of MDMA in cum or saliva is no where near enough to make you roll especially almost instantly.....
 
Can you cite any studies what amount of MDMA is necessary to produce a "roll"? In general, it probably is not enough, but I wanted to ask, because theoretically it seemed possible...
 
^^ I'm a mixture of too tired and too drunk to bother looking but I've seen people post various graphs and tables over the years that I think the "threshold dose" for MDMA is 20~30mg (depending on a few factors). Since even a strong pill contains 100~120mg, there's no way 20~25% of a pill ends up in your semen.
 
My buddy says he had 5-10 pills, so he could have had almost 500mg in his system or more... Anyways, still sounds like a stretch, thanks everybody for the input. I wanted to see if anybody else had similar experience, and althogh the idea of e being sexually transmitted might seem beyond common sense it is like Albert Einstein said once: "“If at first the idea is not absurd, then there is no hope for it.”
 
^^ Even 500mg means about 1/25 (4%) of his dose was in his semen which just isn't true.
 
C10H12N20 said:
Theoretically if you can find mdma in saliva, then you can find it at other places in your body, which would mean that E could be sexually transmitted...

The reason I ask is my buddy had a bunch of pills (5-10) the other night and his gf did not. He said they had sex and then he said she rolled her ass off and her pupils were dilated, but she did not have any pills. At first I laughed, but then on the second thought, I guess it is theoritecally possible, if the dose is high enough... Has anybody had experience like that? Any thoughts?
Click to expand...

This actually happened to a friend of mine. My best friend was rolling and he was not. They messed around for like 3 hours and then afterwards his eyes were dialated and he said that his body felt tingly. He talked a lot and kept commenting on the music. He had never rolled in his life. It only lasted for maybe 10-15 mins though.

What about through maybe sweating?? I'm not sure how stupid this theory sounds, but if the person rolling was sweating all over someone could it be transmitted that way? I mean I heard that there is a drug, that if you're on it and you pet your dog long enough, it gets transmitted through your sweat and you dog trips out. This could just be a stupid romour. I think they were talking about acid or LSD. I don't know anything about these drugs so I wouldn't know. Just a thought...
 
Not enough drug is transferred

Basically, what you're describing is a contact high. It happens when in the company of a person (or people) who are under the influence of a drug. If one of the people is somebody with whom you have a close personal relationship at that point, you can develop an empathic understanding of "where that person's head is at", and as one of the main effects of MDMA is enhanced empathy for other peoples mental state, it's one of the drugs most likely to produce a contact high (with all the accompianing physiological signs)
 
Yes but...

It is placebo in the sense that there is no drug present, but rather than the effects being via an inactive pill, contact high is more to do with the way people communicate. When people agree on a belief, are friends or most noticably, are in love/lust they will mirror each other's body language. That, combined with the empathetic response of the person who has taken the drug and a prior knowledge of the state (the last one isn't an absolute, falling in love with someone is the drug's naturally evoked counterpart), has so many cues that are normally associated with that emotional state that is easy to do a "willing suspension of disbelief" (like when so engrossed in a movie, it evokes real physiological responses in response to the story on the screen - pick your pet horror/suspense film to vividly experience it) and before you know it shazam! your pupils are huge, you love the world, and everyone in it and you're spouting utter bollocks (well sometimes everyone does) with heartfelt conviction.

And no drug transfer between bodies ever takes place.

And that's, as far as I can see, the holy grail of the ecstacy experience; a state of grace without drugs.
 
Never underestimate the power of a social group. People tend to take on the characteristics of people around them. Just look at the way colloquialisms and mannerisms are transferred from person to person; you can unintentionally pick up habits of your friends without trying.

The phrase "contact high" is bandied about, but ultimately it just comes down to acting like your peers for what ultimately amounts to evolutionary/social reasons. If everyone around you is having a good time, its likely you will too. If everyone around you is acting strangely, you'll likely copy what they're doing to fit in.
 
Following up on the orgasm serotonin/dopamine thing, and the passing comment some made about SSRIs reducing sexual drive etc, a friend of mine was unable to orgasm for a year whilst on SSRIs for depression.

This is apparently due to the process of orgasm requiring a drop in serotonin just before hand (although there is subsequent release post orgasm). This also explains why many people find it hard to orgasm when under the effects of MDMA.
 
SSRIs do indeed have anorgasmia, or delayed ejaculation as one of their side effects.

This has been traced to the blockade of the 5-HT2 uptake pump: http://www.preskorn.com/books/omd_s6.html.

Do you have a reference for the "lower serotonin before orgasm" claim?

Also:
5-HT1A receptor agonists facilitate ejaculation (and by implication orgasm)
5-HT1B receptor agonists inhibit ejaculation.
SSRIs are believed to inhibit orgasm by increased 5-HT1B receptor activity.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/query.fcgi?cmd=Retrieve&db=pubmed&dopt=Abstract&list_uids=9886765
 
^^^ This was pulled directly from my neuroscience text book, minus citations, because that would take too long to type. If anyone really wants those, I'll edit my post and include a bibliography of the cited parts.

"Biological Psycology" 8th. ed.; Kalat, James. W


"In moderate concentrations, dopamine stimulates mostly type D1 and D5 receptors, which facilitate erection of the penis in the male and sexually receptive postures in the female. In higher concentrations, dopamine stimulates type D2 receptors, which lead to orgasm. The effects at D1 and D2 receptors tend to inhibit each other. As a result, the early stages of sexual excitement are characterized by arousal but not orgasm; the late stage is marked by orgasm and then a decrease in arousal.

Whereas dopamine stimulates sexual activity, the neurotransmitter serotonin inhibits it, in part by blocking dopamine release. Many popular antidepressant drugs increase serotonin activity, and one of their side effects is to decrease sexual arousal and impair orgasm."

I will post my stipulations later. Right now, I have to go to class...

...discuss amongst yourself.
~Decibel
 
Parotitinr=chem castration

I've been prescribed paroxitine i the past (I uffer from SAD - seasonal affective disorder), but never again. The effects were to give my libido its marching orders, and for someone in their early 30's, it's not on.

In the US, I've noticed that some people are also co-prescribed methylphenidate, to reduce the effects on libido. I asked my GP, and after a small laugh, he said that it wasn't possible under NHS guidelines. To prescribe outside NHS guidelines, I'd have to see a consultant (read psychiatrist). I went back to tricyclics for treatment
 
No, I don't have a reference for my claim - it's merely heresay. I will try and find out from where my source heard the claim. My biological understanding of the process of orgasm is very rudimentary... If anyone can support or disprove my claim, I'd love to hear it... the friend who was unable to achieve orgasm whilst on SSRIs was female, btw. If the 1B and 1A inhibit/facilitate ejaculation in males, whats going on in the female?

On another note, if as Decibel quotes, serotonin decreases sexual activity, then why do so many people find themselves easily or more aroused whilst on MDMA?

fastandbulbous, did you get my PM?
 
specialspack -- the ejaculation reflex is related to orgasm in males. I haven't looked for a study, but I suspect that teh same receptors have some function in female orgasm; despite differences in anatomy, I'd find it very strange if an entire receptor subspecies had no parallel in the female with the male.

I find myself less aroused on MDMA usually. Presumably the reason some people do find themselves aroused is because of the dopamine release. Ditto for MDA, which releases even more dopamine.

fastandbulbous -- have you considered moclobemide (Aurorix/Manerix)? It's a reversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidase which many people believe lacks many of the side effects of the SSRIs.

I've heard of methylphenidate coadministration like that in the US, but the US often treats depression with that drug. In Australia you cannot be prescribed it unless you're diagnosed by a specialist with ADD/narcolepsy. You wonder why there's so much abuse of it over there, its because everybody is prescribed it willy-nilly
 
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