Misc Hydrocodone. Quick Question

[tricomb]

^Read my post again.

Where are you basing that claim? Please post a source that says hydrocodone's rectal BA is lower than the other ROAs. I agree that hydrocodone is best taken orally, just like oxycodone, but even oxycodone is supposed to have the same rectal BA as oral, even up to like 10% higher than the oral BA if I remember correctly.

From wikipedia:

Dosage and administration
Oxycodone can be administered orally, intranasally, via intravenous/intramuscular/subcutaneous injection or rectally. The bioavailability of oral administration of Oxycodone averages 60–87%, with rectal administration yielding the same results; intranasal varies between individuals with a mean of 46%.[25]

There aren't enough studies on this topic, but the rectal route is certainly a viable ROA.

http://www.anesthesia-analgesia.org/content/80/2/296.full.pdf

Also, even though in some people, the rectal ROA is not as high as oral (because there are many variables involved), the duration of rectally administered opioids is significantly longer than oral.

edit: also, I'm not sure why snorting oxycodone keeps your dose lower, that's strange because nasal is one of the least efficient routes of administration for oxycodone. It has a faster onset, but when you do the math, you're getting a substantially less amount of oxycodone than you would taking it orally. The snorted BA is like 61% and oral is like 87% IIRC, so you're wasting a ton of oxy by snorting it and it's probably not good for your nose either.

 

[bayhead415]

That's what I am saying tricomb... If I snort 7.5 to 15 mg it is less than eating that same amount and helps keep the dose lower if I do not increase it over time even if it is not by that much as well as not as safe a method to use as oral, which is why I included the tongue face sticking out. Also oxycodone and hydrocodone are similar in molecular structure, but may have a huge difference in BA rates, but they are very likely to be pretty similar.

As far as hydrocodone rectal bioavalibility being lower I came across it somewhere when I was thinking about it, but decided not to after I learned it was lower than oral. If I find the source I will post it.

edit: This is for oxycodone, but states the rectal BA is on the low end of being equal to oral and possibly just less based on each person and their different metabolism. It is not a scientific article, but it has percentages that seem to match.

http://www.drugs-forum.com/forum/showthread.php?t=22807
"Oxycodone
Oral: 60-87% (due to low first-pass metabolism).
Insufflated: One study says 45%. However anecdotal evidence says that it may be higher than this number.
Rectal: 61.6% in one study."

One person says around 70%-85% on opiodaphile, but there is no link to their source they are referencing and literally just states they believe it is that.

Edit 2: It does not seem to be much lower if it is, but I do not think it is a big difference if it is stronger or weaker and not really worth it when taking it orally works well enough.

 

[onetwo]

Seems like a BDD question, but I would just take one and you should feel not too bad.