How important is bioavailibity?

[OxyDillyKing]

my question relates to if its possible to really over dose cuz of biolavailibility differences? i think it probably would be im just getting confirmation about what bioavailibilty actually means. for example:

oxymorphone
Plugging BA: %10
Snorting BA: %43

So for example, if i was fine plugging 10mg of oxymorphone, and it give me a big, big high, like it totally fucked me up, then snorting the same 10mg would probably kill me, right? because it would be about 4 times more effective. it would be like plugging about 40mg of oxymorphine right? And if plugging 40mg of oxymorphone would kill me, i could also expert snorting 10mg oxymorphone to kill me as well correct?

P.S. this is just hypothetical question. i have never used or even seen oxymorphone. i used IV opiate pills with .2 micron filter, and heroin IV when i dont have pills or run out of microns. other than that all i do is smoke cigs

 

[Jabberwocky]

i always wondered this too. i heard sniffing amps had like twice the BA......which means i'd only need half as much

 

[dubSTEP]

I've never heard more people disagree on this subject, specifically Adderall.

There is literally no "scientific" evidence on this. It gets frustrating.

 

[DynoSpec]

there are some factors, but short answer is yes. since there would be a much higher blood plasma concentration of the drug, you could risk oding. a better example is if you ate 10mg of oxymorphone, and it blasted you, iving 10mg, would probably be pretty dangerous since you get the full 10mg, instantly