Glutethimide is an inducer of CYP2D6 and as a result extremely potentiates codeine. However I have heard many times that in order to potentiate something you have to inhibit the enzymes that metabolise it. For instance:
"Cimetidine is also known to potentiate the effects of several opioids, including tramadol, which are partially metabolized via the cytochrome P450 pathway, via inhibiting their metabolism and a temporary decrease of liver function due to reduced hepatic blood flow. This can lead to extreme plasma levels of these drugs and can easily lead to a fatal overdose." (from wikipedia)
Does this mean it inhibits the enzymes that result in inactive metabolites thus freeing up more to be converted to active metabolites. Or does it mean that by inhibiting, it takes longer for something to be metabolised thus somehow builds up much more than normal? And is codeine different to most other drugs in that not only is it a pro-drug but it is only absorbed via first-pass metabolism or is that quite common amongst drugs?
Which is it? Inducing/Inhibiting?
Can anyone give some hard pharmacological evidence to finally put the nail in the coffin about potentiation? I'm so fucking sick of reading so much conflicting evidence.
"Cimetidine is also known to potentiate the effects of several opioids, including tramadol, which are partially metabolized via the cytochrome P450 pathway, via inhibiting their metabolism and a temporary decrease of liver function due to reduced hepatic blood flow. This can lead to extreme plasma levels of these drugs and can easily lead to a fatal overdose." (from wikipedia)
Does this mean it inhibits the enzymes that result in inactive metabolites thus freeing up more to be converted to active metabolites. Or does it mean that by inhibiting, it takes longer for something to be metabolised thus somehow builds up much more than normal? And is codeine different to most other drugs in that not only is it a pro-drug but it is only absorbed via first-pass metabolism or is that quite common amongst drugs?
Which is it? Inducing/Inhibiting?
Can anyone give some hard pharmacological evidence to finally put the nail in the coffin about potentiation? I'm so fucking sick of reading so much conflicting evidence.
