Ok I know there are several threads on this subject, most of which I read but do not answer my question. I have a single experience with Mush + MDMA, about ten years ago, which was out of this world, and I attempted to get back there last evening, to no avail.
I first ate about 3 grams of fresh mush (I grew myself
. At about T(mush)+0:45 I swallowed 125 mg of MDMA. Both of these dosages are somewhat lower than what I would normally take, but remembering the potentiation that took place ten years ago I didn't want to encounter the fear. I will also mention at this point that it had been over a month since I'd taken any other psychoactive substances whatsoever, and I do not take any type of psychotropic medications.
At T(mush)+0:45 I began to notice the first effects of the mush, which is why I decided to take the MDMA at this time. However, even by T(MDMA)+0:45, I was only still feeling the effects of the mush. MDMA usually hits me really quickly, like 20 minutes, so by T+0:45 with no effects I was disappointed and so swallowed another 125mg of MDMA.
To make this short and to the point, I did not experience any of the MDMA's effects until long into the trip, about the time that the effects of the mush began to subside. Even then, the effects were mild at best (being that it was now close to T(MDMA)+3:00), nothing even CLOSE to what 250mg of MDMA normally entails.
My question is, is it possible that the mush and MDMA created an immediate cross-tolerance (since they both work @5HT), canceling out some of each other's effects? This goes against the potentiation theory, but I don't know what else to think at this point. Because in retrospect, even the mush effects didn't amount to what a 3g mush experience should have been, and the effects began to completely vanish by around T(mush)+2:30, which is definitely not normal. I know that in the other threads I read that it was recommended to take the MDMA first (I should have read this prior to dosing); I did the opposite because for me, the mush effects always seem to linger longer, whereas the MDMA is a quick come-up and shorter plateau. I thought that this was the way to go, but obviously not.
Anyone with experience and/or knowledge care to shed any insight into my troubling situation? Thanks!!
I first ate about 3 grams of fresh mush (I grew myself
At T(mush)+0:45 I began to notice the first effects of the mush, which is why I decided to take the MDMA at this time. However, even by T(MDMA)+0:45, I was only still feeling the effects of the mush. MDMA usually hits me really quickly, like 20 minutes, so by T+0:45 with no effects I was disappointed and so swallowed another 125mg of MDMA.
To make this short and to the point, I did not experience any of the MDMA's effects until long into the trip, about the time that the effects of the mush began to subside. Even then, the effects were mild at best (being that it was now close to T(MDMA)+3:00), nothing even CLOSE to what 250mg of MDMA normally entails.
My question is, is it possible that the mush and MDMA created an immediate cross-tolerance (since they both work @5HT), canceling out some of each other's effects? This goes against the potentiation theory, but I don't know what else to think at this point. Because in retrospect, even the mush effects didn't amount to what a 3g mush experience should have been, and the effects began to completely vanish by around T(mush)+2:30, which is definitely not normal. I know that in the other threads I read that it was recommended to take the MDMA first (I should have read this prior to dosing); I did the opposite because for me, the mush effects always seem to linger longer, whereas the MDMA is a quick come-up and shorter plateau. I thought that this was the way to go, but obviously not.
Anyone with experience and/or knowledge care to shed any insight into my troubling situation? Thanks!!

