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High doses of Intravenous Methadone = chaos of the mind?

kapheen'

kapheen'

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Feb 12, 2002
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I posted a thread similar to this one in OD about 2 weeks ago. I didn't receive much of any educated responses.

Basically, I had a fair amount of liquid methadone (Roxane 10mg per 1ml) that I was using intravenously. Yes, yes, I know methadone isn't meant to be used IV and it has a super high bio-availability - blah blah. I enjoyed it like that, and I believe that it's fairly more potent IV.

Anyways, after shooting over 300mg's (probably closer to 400mg's) within 8-12 hours or so, something began to go wrong in my head, about 30 minutes after IV'ing an additional 100mg's or so. I felt extremely out of place in my own body. The left and right sides of my body felt different from one another. One side would feel congested and the other clear. I felt it in my head and chest. I was feeling like I was going to have a seizure or pass out, plus all the classic symptoms of an anxiety/panic attack. But now, over a month later, if I try and use a dose big enough for me to feel those symptoms come back. I've been using opiates for a bunch of years and I've never experienced anything like this nor heard of anything like this happening to anyone else.

I've noticed pains on the top of my head. Also, when this happens I feel (hard to put it into words) a kind of rushing feeling my head. On the upper left side. The only way I'm able to use still is to combat these effects with benzos. And sometimes that doesn't even cut it.

I'm curious what may have happen, also, if I'm harming myself further by using still.

Replies appreciated, explanations greatly appreciated.... Thanks in advance.
 
hahaha, some dude at the clinic I use to go to would shoot up his massively diluted cherry crap flavored done every take home. Guy probably needed a 20cc rig to fit all that in.

However, methadone can be injected. I read some opiate related book where in england, back in the day they gave out IV methadone doses for patients.

The solution you have should be fine to shoot up on occassion with no problem, but why the hell go so high?? 400mg is insane.....
 
^^probably because that's where his tolerance was at, as far as getting high goes.

This OD thread is the one kapheen' refers to. kapheen', I stopped following it after the first page or so. Maybe you covered it there, but are you able to use other opiates? I don't have much to respond with, but the answer to that question may be of relevance to someone with more knowledge than I.
 
I can use small doses of whatever I like. But when it comes to large doses the nasty feelings start once again. I'm just trying to find out what I did with such a large dose to fuck myself up.
 
When I take huge doses of Methadone, I feel a lot of the effects you describe, and many other strange ones...
 
Methadone is an NMDA antagonist, so at very high doses, will likely cause such a dissociative effect, as proved by yours truly (the OP)
 
^ Yeah, but it's in the 1-10uM range for the MK-801 site,[1] as opposed to the 1-10nM at the mu opioid receptor... I think you'd be deep in the cold cold ground before methadone started doing that (morphine has about the same (maybe 10x less) NMDA receptor affinity if memory serves[2])
 
These effects are still going on whenever I take any kind of opiate/opioid. If it's a high enough dose atleast
 
BilZ0r said:
^ Yeah, but it's in the 1-10uM range for the MK-801 site,[1] as opposed to the 1-10nM at the mu opioid receptor... I think you'd be deep in the cold cold ground before methadone started doing that (morphine has about the same (maybe 10x less) NMDA receptor affinity if memory serves[2])
Click to expand...

I think that even at lower doses it provides enough NMDA antagonism, that combined with the opiate effect can prove somewhat disorientating (and frankly quite scary). Methadone is used clinically to treat neuropathic pain because of it's slight NMDA antagonism (info taken from the BNF) so it must be a significant effect at doses lower than that which would kill you
 
Yeah, but when do clinicians care about how drugs actually work? Heaps of BNF entries say the mechanism of a drug isn't know, when it's been known for decades...

As I say, the affinity is 1000x times too low, I just can't see how that can lead to an important effect.
 
Couldn't these strange effects be caused by the kappa receptors rather that NMDA antagonism (or both)?
(does Methadone effects kappa receptors? only at high doses maybe?))
 
methadone at kappa? Nice idea, but I doubt it... Schmidt puts the methadone mu affinity at 20nM and it's kappa affinity at 1700nM... (delta at 540nM)
 
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