SecondPull
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Jan 21, 2010
- Messages
- 79
IamMe has formed a positive correlation with the correct.
On the same token, though, you can't say that there is more going on - you (or we, rather) just can't know that.i don't think you understand the subtle difference between causality and correlation; the problem of causality is one that is largely discussed in philosophy so it's not a surprise that a lot of science students take "causality" for granted
i'm telling you that you absolutely cannot explain the translation from physical to phenomenological. i dare you to
all you've done is provided correlative processes - this neuron interacting with this causes this change in consciousness - it's all correlation. but tell me how our conscious experience, which is NOT phenomenologically the same as external sensory perception, occurs as a result of those interactions? you can't. you can break down the correlative processes ad infinitum into a chain of microprocesses, but they're still correlative in nature. all you're doing is describing consciousness in terms of physical processes - which does not the bridge the inherent disconnect between them.
I ask you how physical neurological interaction translates into conscious experience. you say that "its oscillatory properties of thalamic neurons and corticothalamic excitatory postsynaptic potentials"
I can still ask you how that interaction produces conscious phenomena. I'm not sure how else to break it down but there it is. "causality" breaking down into nothing more than correlation is a longstanding problem in philosophy that has been addressed in my ways. hume largely left it alone; kant tried to account for causality by claiming it as an priori faculty of the human mind. regardless of your solution, you can't get around the fact that you will never be able to descriptively/causally tell me how conscious phenomena are caused at the very fundamental level by physical processes
the problem with scientists is that sometimes they are blinded by the efficacy of their own research, in terms of pragmatic results. your correlative knowledge of neuro-cognitive processes as they relate to consciousness is extremely useful, but that doesn't mean that you can know everything there is to know about consciousness. believe it or not, philosophy can and does point out legitimate limitations on the scope of your research. that is why there is a huge branch of philosophy called "epistemology" that deals with the inherent and structural limitations of knowledge.
Why so? There is nothing more at play. Consciousness is a biological process in the brain; Biological processes can be explained in terms of chemicals and physical interactions of forces and charge.
i'm telling you that you absolutely cannot explain the translation from physical to phenomenological. i dare you to
You are equating "Brain" with "consciousness." If the physical structures/PROCESSES of the brain are the ultimate and final ground and basis of consciousness, then WHAT IS IT that is "having" the sensation of "what it feels like to be a brain"?
WHY should certain constructions of neurons/nerve signals/etc possess an internal subjective sensation of what it "feels like" to be them?
"Brain" with "consciousness."
If electrochemical events in the brain "generate" consciousness, then what, exactly, is the input to this generator and what exactly is the "product" that is being "generated"? In what ontological basis/realm/space does it exist? Can you touch it, weigh it, measure it? If it is not a physical thing... THEN WHAT IS IT??? WHERE DOES IT EXIST?
Ah my friend you are the one missing the point. A chair is a physical object subject to newtons laws of motion etc. A consciousness is NOT. To just claim "protons and electrons and energy generate consciousness" is an utterly facile and useless remark, as if there is nothing remarkable about this statement, as if there is nothing further to be understood. The fact is the translation from physical entities to conscious awareness is a COMPLETE MYSTERY. It is the CORE of what is being discussed, and you, as typical of other physicalists, are just trying to brush it under the carpet and pretend the "problem" of this explanatory gap does not exist... it does exist and it is a BIG DEAL!
What you apparently glossed over in my post is the theory of Chalmers, and also that of "Panpsychics" (nothing to do with anything paranormal, btw), and the "Mysterian" school of thought (again, an actual strain of philosophical inquiry, look it up), is that there exists a basic and fundamental "field" or "elemental" consciousness a-priori about the universe, whose nature is not the "result" of anything our brains do, but that is harnessed in some way by them. This is totally at odds with your "its all just atoms" arguments that dismiss any and all mystical understandings with one giant broom.
Have you ever taken a large dose of a psychedelic? Have you ever experienced "ego-loss"?
consciousness is a product of interaction of chemicals and physical forces.
Well no need to worry OP, we are god but only a part, like a toe is only part of you, so relax man, i don't see my toe freaking out trying to inject dmorph to pretend its not part of me... haha
I never said conciousness WAS physical. I said:
which is 100% true.
If you take all the mechanisms in the brain and replicated the chemical and electrical relationships between them in a laboratory. You would have created a conciousness artificially. Conciousness is a product of all the neuronal communication.
Its just a fact that atoms, organised in the way they are in the brain make conciousness.
I have taken large dose psychadelics, but am unsure if I have ever reached ego loss, or according to a thread in here a while back, whether ego loss even exists. I believe it probably does. Why? will that suddenly make me skeptical of the reason why 10+10 = 20?
I never said conciousness WAS physical. I said:
which is 100% true.
If you take all the mechanisms in the brain and replicated the chemical and electrical relationships between them in a laboratory. You would have created a conciousness artificially. Conciousness is a product of all the neuronal communication.
Its just a fact that atoms, organised in the way they are in the brain make conciousness.
I have taken large dose psychadelics, but am unsure if I have ever reached ego loss, or according to a thread in here a while back, whether ego loss even exists. I believe it probably does. Why? will that suddenly make me skeptical of the reason why 10+10 = 20?
So conciousness, although not physical itself, is governed by physical relationships between molecules
Memory is phenomenological. Damaging the hippocampus removes the ability to encode long term memories. The medial septum in the hippocampus, the central node of the theta system, is damaged, then this effect is observed 100% of the time. Which brings it all back to electrical energy; the hippocampus generates some of the largest EEG signals of any brain structure. In some situations the EEG is dominated by regular waves at 3–10 Hz.
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I never said conciousness WAS physical. I said:
which is 100% true.
If you take all the mechanisms in the brain and replicated the chemical and electrical relationships between them in a laboratory. You would have created a conciousness artificially. Conciousness is a product of all the neuronal communication.
Its just a fact that atoms, organised in the way they are in the brain make conciousness.
You seem confused - is consciousness physical or not?

And no, you would not have created a conciousness artifically, you're talking out your ass