I assume I'm not alone in my bs detector alarm sounding loud and long when I hear or read about a politician/ social commentator/ medical professional arguing in favour of marijuana being kept illegal on the grounds of its status as a "gateway drug": the implication being that because the vast majority of heroin users started off with marijuana then it's a foregone conclusion that marijuana is a gateway drug and then, presumably, I feel it's implicitly stated that any loosening of regulations/ legalising/ decriminalisng of marijuana would therefore lead to a massive upsurge in heroin addiction.
How is it that this piece of such crass pseudo-scientific (il)logic - so bad that it's not even wrong.... - can be heard from some apparently quite intelligent people and why is its inherently wrong premise (which is only true because both substances happen to be illegal) bandied about so often that this has become accepted thinking in today's Western public arena?
Looking specifically at this non-link between marijuana and heroin: I'm certain that not only was there no increase in hard drug use in the Netherlands when marijuana became effectively decriminalised and widely available for sale out in the open but I'll go one step further and assert that the Netherlands has way lower per-capita heroin usage than, for example, the U.S........a 1988 paper (http://www.csdp.org/research/dutch.pdf) which uses U.S. census data and data published by the Dutch Ministry of Health notes that the U.S.A has a per capita heroin usage rate of 308 per 100 000 whereas the Netherlands has a heroin usage rate of only 160 per 100 000.
(Now it's possible that these figures have changed drastically in the last 24 years but I don't believe they have and if you're certain they have please produce data to back up your claim)
Does this not suggest the inherent flaws with the "marijuana-as-gateway-drug-to-hard-drugs-like-heroin" theory? But why is this not more commonly known?
Any thoughts on this subject including any criticisms or queries about my data or speculations would be most welcome.
How is it that this piece of such crass pseudo-scientific (il)logic - so bad that it's not even wrong.... - can be heard from some apparently quite intelligent people and why is its inherently wrong premise (which is only true because both substances happen to be illegal) bandied about so often that this has become accepted thinking in today's Western public arena?
Looking specifically at this non-link between marijuana and heroin: I'm certain that not only was there no increase in hard drug use in the Netherlands when marijuana became effectively decriminalised and widely available for sale out in the open but I'll go one step further and assert that the Netherlands has way lower per-capita heroin usage than, for example, the U.S........a 1988 paper (http://www.csdp.org/research/dutch.pdf) which uses U.S. census data and data published by the Dutch Ministry of Health notes that the U.S.A has a per capita heroin usage rate of 308 per 100 000 whereas the Netherlands has a heroin usage rate of only 160 per 100 000.
(Now it's possible that these figures have changed drastically in the last 24 years but I don't believe they have and if you're certain they have please produce data to back up your claim)
Does this not suggest the inherent flaws with the "marijuana-as-gateway-drug-to-hard-drugs-like-heroin" theory? But why is this not more commonly known?
Any thoughts on this subject including any criticisms or queries about my data or speculations would be most welcome.
