Seeing as this has been bumped and I've just smoked a rock, I may as well splurge out a well overdue tl;dr post to ride the prang.
I am an opiate dependant and total benzo pig, being completely dependant on them psychologically I have to take forced tolerance breaks in order to avoid physical dependence and daily use. Before the UK RC market disappeared in May 2016 I was in hogs heaven, finding that the selection of RC benzos more than measured up to their medicinal counterparts. I developed a particular taste for clonitrazolam and flubromazepam so, being the total waste of space that I am I was particularly excited when f - lam hit the market.
I know the regular posters and mods in here really know their shit when it comes to pharmacokinetics so any insight into my weird experiences with flubromazolam would be welcome and insightful.
I was using diclazepam, diazepam, clonazepam, clonazolam and f - pam regularly in moderately pokey doses when I first purchased 20 500mcg f -lam pellets and due to my reasonable tolerance at the time (I was using all the benzos I had access to in doses approx. equipotent to 20 - 30mg diazepam) and junky fuelled stupidity I took 3 pellets (1.5mg) for my first dose. At the time I felt more melted than I have ever done from any benzo, more so even than temazepam and midazolam to the extent that I could not stand for the first 2 - 3 hours after they took effect.
I was aware from anecdotal reports that many were advising caution against regular use of this drug due to its tendency to escalate tolerance to ridiculous levels in an unprecedented short amount of time, so I waited a week before using the drug again, using 2mg on the second occasion to help wind down from an evening in the local pub where I had chased a gram of 3 -FPM. Although they did the trick, I was no where near as incapacitated as on the fist occasion.
I left it a fortnight before trying the drug again, on this occasion taking a ridiculous and inadvisable 3mg but found that they caused little to no effect.
What continues to baffle me is that although I experienced immediate diminished returns with my use of f - pam, my tolerance to other benzodiazepines did not appear to be altered, with all of them continuing to have good effect at the doses I was used to taking. I finally gave them one more shot about 6 - 9 months later when a friend gave me the remainder of a bag of pellets he had purchased as he, like most users found very (in his case far to) strong. I took 3mg straight off the bat, again feeling nothing.
My own codfish logic makes me think that whatever particular pathway flubromazolam uses in the brain to achieve its effect must have been permanently blown by that original experience as they have not worked since, despite other benzodiazepines (including the almost as potent clonitrazolam) continuing to work just fine. Could this be the case or am I taking out of my hole?
Either way, I find this a particularly strange drug that should be approached with even more caution than other benzodiazepines, due to my own weird experience and that it is the one benzodiazepine I have encountered that appears to have been responsible for some deaths. Benzodiazepines are often associated with fatalities as a component of polydrug overdoses but I have come across a couple of instances where it was alleged that flubromazolam was the only drug present in fatal drug poisonings.
