The case I'm best aware of, where someone got away with it, was absolutely an analogue and apparently only got away with it because of obfuscation about the ability to synthesize analogue A from scheduled drug B.
But I'm not arguing that you would be successfully prosecuted, or even that you would be prosecuted. I'm arguing that from a rational reading of the law, a strong case can be made for this faxeladol being a LEGAL analogue of moramide.
Why can't you see that raceflaxeladol's chemical structure is not substantially similar to dextromoramide?
Because, as the law is written, it is. It shares roughly 80% of it's structure in common. Unless you hold some secret definition that has not been released to the public, you cannot deny this. Moramide shares much less in common, as I mentioned above, but as the law is written, it does not work this way.
You keep repeating the same thing over and over, but besides random ad hominem's, you've given no reason why it isn't. You keep basing your argument in chemistry, but that's not what the law was written for. It was written to allow the widest coverage possible. It has done this well.
All the drug in question must do is share substantial structural elements in common with the scheduled drug, and bind to the same receptor.
This drugs structure is basically just moramide pared down. Remove the features that aren't essential for opioid activity, and you're there (not exactly, I suspect that ring doesn't need to be closed)