morphonorconic
Bluelighter
There have been threads here and there in the past regarding the "runners high" which we all know is due to our own endogenous opioids, also referred to as endorphins. Anyone who has ever done any form of strenuous exercise knows this feeling. For many of us, myself included, it can become (seemingly) very pronounced when we have a deficit of pharmaceutical/street opioids in our system (w/d), and can provide more than substantial relief from moderate to severe w/d symptoms. Therefore, when someone is in withdrawl and feeling miserable, if they can force themself to go for a jog, do some push-ups and sit-ups, etc, they will feel better due to this neurotransmitter release.
Now, there is often the question of will the effects of an exogenous opiate/opioid taken after strenuous exercise be increased by this endorphin release? As in "Will there be a cumulative effect from my Opiate X on top of this 'runners high' I am already feeling?" I, like many of us, have often thought that yes, it would and it does.
Now I am beginning to question this.
So my question to all of you is: How strong is the binding affinity of our own endogenous opioids compared to an exogenous one? And moreso, will an ingested opioid like Hydrocodone, Oxycodone, whatever, outcompete endogenous opioids at your receptor sites? I had always assumed that since they are our endorphins and our receptors, they could be thought of as two perfectly inter-locking puzzle pieces, and would therefore not be easily replaced by a drug. But now I am not so sure.
I've noticed that after strenuous hikes and such, that if I take, say, a Norco while defintely feeling the endorphin high, that my endorphin high seems to diminish quite substantially, rather than just adding to it. On another related note, back when I was landscaping (which is extremely physical) that on the days I would take a half a Norco during the workday to help with pain, that my pain would actually be worse than if I didn't take anything, which suggests to me that I was better off relying on my own pain relieving endorphins than my Hydrocodone/Acetaminophen.
Therefore, this has me thinking that taking a small amount of an opioid drug when experiencing the "runners high" may actually replace your own endorphins with the drug at your receptor sites. I say a small amount because if you take a large dose, you are obviously going to be introducing into your brain a higher level of opioids than even the best of exercise can release. So in that case, you'd basically be trading a good high for a better one. And I know that so much of what I'm asking depends on the potency, bioavailability, and binding affinity of the ingested drug, not to mention individual brain chemistry and such.
I'd love to hear any ideas ya'll have on this. I have been wondering about this for years, so I thought I'd see what you guys think.
Now, there is often the question of will the effects of an exogenous opiate/opioid taken after strenuous exercise be increased by this endorphin release? As in "Will there be a cumulative effect from my Opiate X on top of this 'runners high' I am already feeling?" I, like many of us, have often thought that yes, it would and it does.
Now I am beginning to question this.
So my question to all of you is: How strong is the binding affinity of our own endogenous opioids compared to an exogenous one? And moreso, will an ingested opioid like Hydrocodone, Oxycodone, whatever, outcompete endogenous opioids at your receptor sites? I had always assumed that since they are our endorphins and our receptors, they could be thought of as two perfectly inter-locking puzzle pieces, and would therefore not be easily replaced by a drug. But now I am not so sure.
I've noticed that after strenuous hikes and such, that if I take, say, a Norco while defintely feeling the endorphin high, that my endorphin high seems to diminish quite substantially, rather than just adding to it. On another related note, back when I was landscaping (which is extremely physical) that on the days I would take a half a Norco during the workday to help with pain, that my pain would actually be worse than if I didn't take anything, which suggests to me that I was better off relying on my own pain relieving endorphins than my Hydrocodone/Acetaminophen.
Therefore, this has me thinking that taking a small amount of an opioid drug when experiencing the "runners high" may actually replace your own endorphins with the drug at your receptor sites. I say a small amount because if you take a large dose, you are obviously going to be introducing into your brain a higher level of opioids than even the best of exercise can release. So in that case, you'd basically be trading a good high for a better one. And I know that so much of what I'm asking depends on the potency, bioavailability, and binding affinity of the ingested drug, not to mention individual brain chemistry and such.
I'd love to hear any ideas ya'll have on this. I have been wondering about this for years, so I thought I'd see what you guys think.
) but rather you don't feel the strain and fatigue due to the drugs.
