pr0d1gy
Bluelighter
Perhaps this is the wrong forum for this question, but it seemed to fit as it was more theoretical and pharmacological in nature.
I've been on various formulations of amphetamine for 10+ years. Unfortunately, being a broke college student in the US, I can no longer afford the ridiculous pricetag that even generic amphetamine IR carries, not to mention it is impossible to find. I told this to my psych and after giving me her best "boo hoo poor peasant" look, she wrote me a script for methylphenidate. Even taking 60mg of methylphenidate a day, I am without doubt feeling the effects of withdrawal, granted not as bad as it would be otherwise.
On to my question. Obviously methylphenidate and amphetamine are very similar in effect, but quite different in terms of how they elicit it. I was initially skeptical of methylphenidate's effectiveness in users who have been on amphetamine for long periods of time. Since amphetamine releases dopamine, wouldn't the amount released be lower in the absence of amphetamine? If this is the case, would not a re-uptake inhibitor such as methylphenidate be less effective in individuals who have used amphetamine chronically and ceased use very suddenly?
Naturally, the doctor I was seeing poo poo'd this suggestion, but I'd be interested in what others with likely more knowledge think of this.
I've been on various formulations of amphetamine for 10+ years. Unfortunately, being a broke college student in the US, I can no longer afford the ridiculous pricetag that even generic amphetamine IR carries, not to mention it is impossible to find. I told this to my psych and after giving me her best "boo hoo poor peasant" look, she wrote me a script for methylphenidate. Even taking 60mg of methylphenidate a day, I am without doubt feeling the effects of withdrawal, granted not as bad as it would be otherwise.
On to my question. Obviously methylphenidate and amphetamine are very similar in effect, but quite different in terms of how they elicit it. I was initially skeptical of methylphenidate's effectiveness in users who have been on amphetamine for long periods of time. Since amphetamine releases dopamine, wouldn't the amount released be lower in the absence of amphetamine? If this is the case, would not a re-uptake inhibitor such as methylphenidate be less effective in individuals who have used amphetamine chronically and ceased use very suddenly?
Naturally, the doctor I was seeing poo poo'd this suggestion, but I'd be interested in what others with likely more knowledge think of this.
