atrollappears
Bluelighter
This is copied from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recreational_use_of_dxm#Risks_associated_with_use
"Erectile dysfunction and diminished libido can be a longer-term effect (years to decades) of many narcotic analgesics due to development of central hypogonadism; this appears to be especially common in individuals with significant melanin deficiencies, as the hormones tied to melanin production affect the absorption and conversion of these analgesics into progesterone.[17] Additionally, the haplotypes of about 48% of the indigenous population of Great Britain aggravate the condition, as the E647 sequence underwent epigenetic degradation and became a pseudogene. The chance of vulnerability is doubled for males, as the critical sequence is located on the X chromosome.[18]"
It was my impression that hormonal effects of opiates were directly due to their activation of the opiate receptors, not due to metabolic byproducts. This paragraph sounds legitimate (at least with respect to the risks of whatever is included by "many narcotic analgesics"), but the citations "Busch and Grenfield et al." and "Advanced Hormone Physiology"(?) are questionable since there aren't links, though Busch and Grenfield are real people.
So, my question for you, ADD, is: Is this paragraph bullshit? If not, is it bullshit with respect to DXM? I don't know much about metabolism or opiate chemistry, but DXM does not look like any sort of reasonable metabolic process would transform it into progesterone.
"Erectile dysfunction and diminished libido can be a longer-term effect (years to decades) of many narcotic analgesics due to development of central hypogonadism; this appears to be especially common in individuals with significant melanin deficiencies, as the hormones tied to melanin production affect the absorption and conversion of these analgesics into progesterone.[17] Additionally, the haplotypes of about 48% of the indigenous population of Great Britain aggravate the condition, as the E647 sequence underwent epigenetic degradation and became a pseudogene. The chance of vulnerability is doubled for males, as the critical sequence is located on the X chromosome.[18]"
It was my impression that hormonal effects of opiates were directly due to their activation of the opiate receptors, not due to metabolic byproducts. This paragraph sounds legitimate (at least with respect to the risks of whatever is included by "many narcotic analgesics"), but the citations "Busch and Grenfield et al." and "Advanced Hormone Physiology"(?) are questionable since there aren't links, though Busch and Grenfield are real people.
So, my question for you, ADD, is: Is this paragraph bullshit? If not, is it bullshit with respect to DXM? I don't know much about metabolism or opiate chemistry, but DXM does not look like any sort of reasonable metabolic process would transform it into progesterone.
