Does lorazepam make temazepam less effective? (would really appreciate info.)

[Steady3]

I don't think I'm crazy, as I've experienced this on multiple occasions. If I take lorazepam (.5mg) lets say Friday, and then take 60mg temazepam on Saturday, the effects of the temazepam are less then if I were to take 30mg and nothing else at all days before.

Is there a scientific reason as to why this is?

Thank you

 

[PotatoMan]

Man I see you ain't got any replies. Leme chime in.

err, i dont think a benzo can make another benzo less effective. I mean they go for the same GABA-A receptors I believe.

The only differences in effects is how much more potent one is than the other. Mg for mg Lorazepam is stronger than Temazepam. 1mg Lorazepam = 20mg Temazepam according to BL.

In conclusion the reason you may be finding your Temazepam to be less effective is because the Lorazepam is more potent. Their half-life's are also similar.

I think your tolerance gained from your 0.5mg Loraz dose will affect the weaker benzo, Temazepam's dose along with the lingering metabolites from the Loraz. The Temazepam now has to come in and compete with the lifted tolerance from the Lorazepam dose, then act on the receptors as well as it can depending on how much you took then give you the effect you are looking for.

Sorry if this doesn't help but it's my 2 cents