Apparently, DHC acts as an agonist, and does not demethylate into dihydromorphine, as per:
contradicting:
Although the second implies a study on humans, something seems out of place if I'm understanding these
Does anyone have any insight into this?
Vol. 281, Issue 3, 1164-1170, 1997
Analgesia by Dihydrocodeine Is Not Due to Formation of Dihydromorphine: Evidence from Nociceptive Activity in Rat Thalamus
Ilmar Jurna, Wolfgang Kömen, Joseph Baldauf and Wolfgang Fleischer
Abstract: http://jpet.aspetjournals.org/cgi/content/abstract/281/3/1164
contradicting:
Affinities of dihydrocodeine and its metabolites to opioid receptors.
Schmidt H, Vormfelde S, Klinder K, Gundert-Remy U, Gleiter CH, Skopp G, Aderjan R, Fuhr U
Abstract: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/...ve&db=PubMed&list_uids=12420793&dopt=Abstract
Although the second implies a study on humans, something seems out of place if I'm understanding these
Does anyone have any insight into this?