pr0d1gy
Bluelighter
It is widely assumed that 1mg of diclazepam = 1mg lorazepam. Of course, this would be an expected metabolite that is active at such a low dose. My experience has shown that this may not be the case. It seems possible that diclazepam produces other less potent active metabolites and may vary based on individual metabolism. I have spectral data of my sample, but it is hard to tell the substitution in the aromatic region but it looks alright otherwise. It may well be diazepam and I will be preforming MS this week.
I'd just like some input before I utilize some instruments to investigate. Should diclazepam be expected to be 10x the potency of diazepam? I am just confused because I am finding myself dosing around 80mg (my standard valium dosage is 60mg) and still getting lesser effects.
Thanks for any input. I will post the spectra and chromatogram if anyone is interested.
I'd just like some input before I utilize some instruments to investigate. Should diclazepam be expected to be 10x the potency of diazepam? I am just confused because I am finding myself dosing around 80mg (my standard valium dosage is 60mg) and still getting lesser effects.
Thanks for any input. I will post the spectra and chromatogram if anyone is interested.
