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Could one use the titration curve to assess the purity of heroin base (#3)?

RedHat

Bluelighter
Joined
Jan 2, 2015
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91
It's well known that if the heroin is in its base form (aka: heroin #3), then it needs to be mixed with an acid (usually a weak acid, such as citric or ascorbic acid) before it can be dissolved in water to shot up. The reason is because the heroin molecule contains a tertiary amine group that makes the molecule hydrophobic. When an acid is added to the solution, some of the hydrogen ions (protons) will disassociate from the acid and bind to the nitrogen atom within the heroin molecule, which will make the molecule water soluble. This process is called protonation.
Also, something that's relevant is that even though the heroin is in its base form, since it's not yet miscible in water, testing the pH of the solution won't reflect the presence of a base constituent. This means three things:

  1. When the heroin base is suspended in water, the pH should read neutral.
  2. As the acid is added to the water, the pH actually shouldn't change, since the hydrogen ions are protonating the heroin molecules (meaning there aren't any hydrogen ions to influence the pH reading).
  3. When the heroin is completely protonated and dissolved in the water, any additional acid will introduce excess hydrogen ions to the water, which will cause the pH level to drop.
Thus - the pH should remain neutral until 100% of the heroin molecules are protonated.

The Question: So if I were to suspend specifically 1 gram of heroin base in distilled water, and use an electronic pH meter and diluted hydrochloric acid (with a known molar quantity), couldn't the purity of the heroin be determined based on when the pH begins to drop?

My thinking is that the amount of hydrogen ions needed to fully protonate exactly 1 gram of heroin should correlate to how many heroin molecules were in that 1 gram of heroin. And knowing that the molecular weight of heroin is 369.417 g/mol, combined with the known molar amount of HCl used, one could deduce how much of that 1 gram was actually heroin.

Or is there a problem with the logic in my thinking? (I wouldn't be too surprised..)

Thanks.
 
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Given a clean solution of a strong base or acid, acid-base titration can certainly be used to determine the concentration. In the case of street heroin, though, there are a number of confounding factors. Amines are relatively weak bases and their salts are somewhat acidic in aqueous solution (see, for example, ammonium chloride). Your pH will begin falling below 7 before all the amine has been neutralized. You would also have to assume that there are no other basic amines and no buffering agents in your material, and that may very well not be the case. Any morphine or monoacetylated morphine will throw off the calculation, as will common cuts like quinine, or fentanyl for that matter.

That said, you could probably get roughly the equivalent information to a titration without a pH meter just by adding dilute hydrochloric acid dropwise until all the heroin base dissolves. Assuming no buffers or particularly water-soluble freebases came through with the heroin freebase, the point at which the solution becomes clear would give you a very rough estimate of the total number of freebase amine molecules present.
 
In this modern era of fentanyl as heroin adulterant, the practical answer is "not really".

Also, heroin base has nonzero solubility in water, so you'd see an alkaline solution. And you'd also have to deal with the hydrolysis of the acetyl groups.
 
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