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Consciousness expansion

The_Idler said:
well, no. you do not. =/....

It is possible that gravity would cease to operate at that moment.
or perhaps a pink elephant will come from nowhere and support it.

(blah blah, etc etc)

in fact, hopefully you WILL know you know NOTHING,
i.e. you know ANYTHING could happen.

So I take it your of the position that there are no objective facts, one which I don`t hold.

I`m well aware that anything is possible, but believe the laws of physics (the ones which we have a grasp on) are objective facts, even if we havn`t fully understood how they work yet.

Also, if I know I know nothing, I still know something.



Edit:

Also the laws of nature arn`t the only objective facts, surely numbers and certain statements, "what drink I like, someone else won`t" are universal, you do know these things.
 
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There are so many great theories in this thread and I find myself agreeing with every single one. This happens to me far too often when I start thinking... I run around in circles and I think that every approach is valid. Perhaps they all are?

All I know is that all the energy that ever existed and will ever exist exists right now.. since matter=energy we are all energetic manifestations of the universe, so I do believe that consciousness expansion that our egos experience is really the universe becoming aware of itself.

But I agree with everyone else too =D
 
I started these crazy threads out of pure curiosity and lack of seriousness and as a way to have fun exploring all the varying opinions. Too much fun it all isness.
 
Rod-Everrard said:
So I take it your of the position that there are no objective facts, one which I don`t hold.

I`m well aware that anything is possible, but believe the laws of physics (the ones which we have a grasp on) are objective facts, even if we havn`t fully understood how they work yet.

Also, if I know I know nothing, I still know something.



Edit:

Also the laws of nature arn`t the only objective facts, surely numbers and certain statements, "what drink I like, someone else won`t" are universal, you do know these things.


it has just been explained to you that our assumptions about the laws of physics are not "known facts"

and how can you KNOW someone won't like the same drink you do?

it is possible that everyone in the world has exactly the same tastes as you.
This situation, however, is highly improbable, so one would never act as if it is true.


RIGHT?

HENCE THE POINT:
act as if the most probable situation is true,
BECAUSE IT PROBABLY IS.
 
No.....

It was half explained to me about how we havnt quite worked out gravity to the .0000001% or whatever, not about me knowing gravity exists, which I know.

Yes its probable that everyone in the world has a similar taste, but I know differently, as I know the person who doesnt like the same drink as me.

Again, you even admitted you know something, the fact that you know nothing.
 
Rod-Everrard said:
No.....

It was half explained to me about how we havnt quite worked out gravity to the .0000001% or whatever, not about me knowing gravity exists, which I know.

Yes its probable that everyone in the world has a similar taste, but I know differently, as I know the person who doesnt like the same drink as me.

Again, you even admitted you know something, the fact that you know nothing.
Hi Rod,

I think you're missing the point -- they're not saying there are no objective facts. They're just saying that "anything is possible," which you agreed with a couple posts ago! Nevertheless we have to make decisions based on reality. So we assume that certain unlikely things won't happen and the very likely ones will. Otherwise we'd be paralyzed with indecision.

Take gravity -- let's assume we do know it exists with complete certainty. So if you drop a ball tomorrow can you be 100% sure it will fall? Well, aliens could visit Earth and encase it in an antigravity field at that moment. We could be living in the Matrix and some programmer could have just decided to fuck with us. God could just decide to change the rules of the universe at that moment. Or, in more scientific language, our universe could well be in a metastable vacuum state which spontaneously decays tomorrow, instantaneously changing the laws of physics. There are a zillion possibilities that we can't actually rule out. We can't think them all over and give them all reasonable consideration either -- how the hell am I going to say what the real chances of metstable vacuum collapse are? So we just assume they won't happen since they're so far-fetched. It works very well but that's what it is.

You don't want to assume things that are likely to be wrong, hence that children's saying about assuming. But you don't want to freeze up by taking seriously every half-baked wacky idea that comes by.
 
The point I was trying to make is that not everything we know, is an assumption, which is what I`m getting told it is.


If their not saying there are no objective facts, then there are surely things we must know, regardless of some miraculous intervention. Like the statement "I can see the clouds" is true, I`m not making an assumption that I`m seeing the clouds..

I realise that assumptions can be useful, I was more getting at using them for general life experience`s. Dont just assume something about reality just because its the most logical, go out and find ways to know.
 
^^^ Is it? It's true you see something. Could there be an alien spaceship right there projecting down an image of clouds, in order to cloak itself? Pretty damn unlikely, obviously, but is it 100% impossible?

On the broader point, I don't think many people are against going out and finding things out. But we have a limited amount of time, and if an idea is sufficiently improbable and/or senseless, then it's a good idea not to waste time on it. You're not going to bother investigating or worrying about whether those clouds you saw were really cloaked alien ships, you just assume they really are clouds.

I think the point is there's nothing criminal or wrong about making assumptions like this -- we all do it every day. You and I might differ about which things are so improbable that we can just dismiss them. But then the solution is for me to try and convince you that the thing is much more likely than you thought. Telling you that it's silly to assume anything would be besides the point. Right?

--zorn


-------


yougene said:
Yes this shows a causal relationship between the electrode and the neurons. It does nothing to show the relationship between neurons and consciousness. By the same reasoning I can say a meditator changes his brainwaves by meditating, therefore there is a causal relationship between the two. This explanation would be just as lacking.
Hi yougene,

You seem to be missing the point entirely. Of course the electrode works by electrically stimulating the neurons; we knew that already even tho it's not what the example shows. In the experiment, we electrically stimulate the brain, and we find that then people report particular mental sensations. And stimulating different parts of the brain leads to different sensations in a very regular & predictable way. So stimulation of the brain causes mental states. That's the normal meaning of cause. Isn't that what "X causes Y" means: if I do X, then Y always happens. Right?

Of course going into a meditative state causes a change in one's brainwaves patterns, too; so does going to sleep. The difference is that when you choose to meditate, there's not only mental activity going on -- there's also physical activity in the brain. The brainwaves could be caused physically by the changes in the brain when you choose to meditate, or by the purely mental event. In the brain stimulation case, none of your mental events are involved when the doctor activates of the electrode. (Not unless you believe the whole world just exists in your imagination, in which case the doctor's actions are just your mental events too.)

But this is getting a bit afield and obscures the real issue. We know that tinkering with the brain causes mental states, and modifying the brain can drastically alter the way the mind works. We also know how the matter that makes up the brain behaves -- according to laws of physics. (Neurons, as far as anyone has observed, do not show evidence of "external" non-physical things acting on them.) So there's a couple possibilities: 1) the mind is caused by the brain's functioning, which occurs along the normal rules we've all observed. Or, 2) the mind is an independent entity from the brain, which interacts with it but is not caused by it or part of it. The problem with case #2 is that the the changes in the mind caused by messing with the brain are so wide-ranging and detailed.

Did you read my earlier post, yougene? To take a vehicle analogy again -- if we mess with a car, we can make it hard or impossible for the driver to drive properly. But we won't change the driver, his personality, intentions, temperament, and so on. But it's just a matter of fact that altering the brain can cause vast personality changes, huge emotional changes, deep changes in the nature of our consciousness itself. Damaging the brain can eliminate memories or the ability to form new ones, mess with our thoughts in near-incomprehensible ways. (Some people can see faces just fine, have a memory that works just fine, but can't recognize people. Some people have just fine vision, but when asked to draw a room will not draw anything on the left side of the page -- they will still dodge if someone on their left punches at them, but consciously they don't seem able to grasp anymore that the side exists.)

If the mind is some independent thing, just interacting with the brain to get info about the world and give it orders, all these facts are incomprehensible. If tinkering with the brain changes all these details about the mind, the "independent" part of the mind must be very slim indeed.

I understand not wanting to think the mind arises from the workings of the brain. It seems to cut against many cheerful views about consciousness, afterlife, etc. But it's pointless not to grapple with basic facts about the universe.
 
I think you might have missed the context of my post.

http://www.bluelight.ru/vb/showpost.php?p=5844498&postcount=31
and
http://www.bluelight.ru/vb/showpost.php?p=5844670&postcount=40


Your explanation is based on either possibility 1 or possibility 2. I was coming at the problem from a 3rd possibility. Pre-hension as a property of matter.


It's undeniable that there is a clear connection between mind and brain. I was trying to point out the problems of interpreting this relationship with my meditation example( and the previous post ). What happens is regardless of what stance you take on the issue the meditation / brainwave correlation only serves to reinforce bias. Determinists see this as proof of causation from brain to mind, and the free-will crowd sees this as proof of causation from mind to brain. My point was neither of these views are satisfactory. It just comes down to the classic free-will vs determinist clash.

The problem is in our instrumentation of observation and interpretation. We are limited to taking one perspective at a time, and try to reduce everything to that one perspective. The partial and often unsatisfactory way we look at the world is clearly demonstrated in this situation to me.
 
Rod-Everrard said:
No.....

It was half explained to me about how we havnt quite worked out gravity to the .0000001% or whatever, not about me knowing gravity exists, which I know.

Yes its probable that everyone in the world has a similar taste, but I know differently, as I know the person who doesnt like the same drink as me.

Again, you even admitted you know something, the fact that you know nothing.

yeah, i said that is the only thing one can know.


and perhaps "the person" is lying to you.
very unlikely, so you would not act as if it is true.

and you don't know gravity exists, because you might be living in the matrix, which could be altered at any time.
unlikely, but possible.
 
Rod-Everrard said:
The point I was trying to make is that not everything we know, is an assumption, which is what I`m getting told it is.


If their not saying there are no objective facts, then there are surely things we must know, regardless of some miraculous intervention. Like the statement "I can see the clouds" is true, I`m not making an assumption that I`m seeing the clouds..

I realise that assumptions can be useful, I was more getting at using them for general life experience`s. Dont just assume something about reality just because its the most logical, go out and find ways to know.

you might not be able to see clouds,
you may actually be seeing a swarm of tiny grey men.
This is, however, highly improbable, so you act is if that is not the case.

You can say "I know that I think I can see clouds"
So you can know, only what you are thinking.
So there is no absolute knowledge beyond your mind.

the only assumption we must make, without considering the probability of it's truth (it is impossible), is that things exist outside the mind.

So, assuming ONLY that there are things beyond your mind,
the light information your brain is receiving,
suggests that the most likely situation to most simply explain the nature of said information,
is that you are looking at some clouds.
 
Rod-Everrard said:
If their not saying there are no objective facts, then there are surely things we must know, regardless of some miraculous intervention. Like the statement "I can see the clouds" is true, I`m not making an assumption that I`m seeing the clouds..

I would suggest that in the case of the cloud, the undesputable fact would be that you think that you are seeing a cloud. The fact that you think you are seeing a cloud is like the fact that (for example) you are happy, or the fact that you are imagining a cube in your minds eye. These internal facts about your own state of mind are true by the virtue that you experience them (even if you are mistaken about the fact that the thing you are looking at is really a cloud).

In summary; if you think you are seing a cloud, then the fact that you think this is indisputable.

However, you may be mistaken that is it really a cloud. You may be looking at something that appears to you as a cloud but isn't for some reason. This is very unlikely (clouds are easy to recognise) but this is the point with occams razor, using occams razor you wouldn't worry too much about if it was really a cloud you thought you were seeing or not as most probably it would be.
 
OK,



Your all saying your making assumtpions about the nature of things beyond your mind.

I`m saying go and find ways to know the nature of these things.

That is all.
 
I love how these threads start out normal and get more abstract with every post.
 
Rod-Everrard said:
OK,



Your all saying your making assumtpions about the nature of things beyond your mind.

I`m saying go and find ways to know the nature of these things.

That is all.


that'd be great, but it is logically impossible.
 
yougene said:
It's undeniable that there is a clear connection between mind and brain. I was trying to point out the problems of interpreting this relationship with my meditation example( and the previous post ). What happens is regardless of what stance you take on the issue the meditation / brainwave correlation only serves to reinforce bias. Determinists see this as proof of causation from brain to mind, and the free-will crowd sees this as proof of causation from mind to brain. My point was neither of these views are satisfactory. It just comes down to the classic free-will vs determinist clash.
What a curiously political response! How could this example be taken as proof of causation either way? Consider: what we are talking about is the fact that people's brains show activity when they do mental things. Now, how is this supposed to prove that the mind isn't caused by the brain? If minds were caused by brains, then of course there'd be changes in the brain when someone does mental things -- after all, that brain activity is what's causing those mental states like "I am going to meditate now" to exist. (It's the reverse that would disprove this: mental activity that corresponds to no brain activity.) Also clearly, if brains (or at least brain activity) were caused by minds, this is exactly what you'd expect as well. So this evidence is completely consistent with both viewpoints, yes? It's hard to see then how anyone could take it as proving either.

On the other hand, the evidence we have from direct brain stimulation and brain damage is quite clear. When we stimulate someone else's brain with an electrode, we're modifying the brain but we're not directly modifying their mental activity at all. Since this causes a change in their mental activity, it's quite clear we have an arrow of causation brain->mind. And the wide range of effects we can have on the mind in this way shows that most aspects of the mind must indeed be caused by the brain.


randomly: It's completely unclear to me why you would want to draw the odd hierarchical diagrams you were drawing in those posts, or why you think these are implied by the brain being the source of the mind and why that's a problem. Also, "pre-hension" isn't a word. Perhaps you meant something else? Or are you inventing your own words?
 
yougene said:
It's undeniable that there is a clear connection between mind and brain. I was trying to point out the problems of interpreting this relationship with my meditation example( and the previous post ). What happens is regardless of what stance you take on the issue the meditation / brainwave correlation only serves to reinforce bias. Determinists see this as proof of causation from brain to mind, and the free-will crowd sees this as proof of causation from mind to brain. My point was neither of these views are satisfactory. It just comes down to the classic free-will vs determinist clash.

zorn said:
What a curiously political response! How could this example be taken as proof of causation either way? Consider: what we are talking about is the fact that people's brains show activity when they do mental things. Now, how is this supposed to prove that the mind isn't caused by the brain? If minds were caused by brains, then of course there'd be changes in the brain when someone does mental things -- after all, that brain activity is what's causing those mental states like "I am going to meditate now" to exist. (It's the reverse that would disprove this: mental activity that corresponds to no brain activity.) Also clearly, if brains (or at least brain activity) were caused by minds, this is exactly what you'd expect as well. So this evidence is completely consistent with both viewpoints, yes? It's hard to see then how anyone could take it as proving either.

I don't see why the idea of the mind arising from the brain should be associated with a lack of free will. I believe in free will and i also believe that the mind arises from the brain.

I see what you are saying about my examples potentially supporting both minds from brains and brains from minds. Maybe brain damage is a better example. If minds caused brains rather than brains (activity) causing minds, why would a blow to the head cause the kind of mental problems that it does?
 
zorn said:
What a curiously political response! How could this example be taken as proof of causation either way? Consider: what we are talking about is the fact that people's brains show activity when they do mental things. Now, how is this supposed to prove that the mind isn't caused by the brain? If minds were caused by brains, then of course there'd be changes in the brain when someone does mental things -- after all, that brain activity is what's causing those mental states like "I am going to meditate now" to exist. (It's the reverse that would disprove this: mental activity that corresponds to no brain activity.) Also clearly, if brains (or at least brain activity) were caused by minds, this is exactly what you'd expect as well. So this evidence is completely consistent with both viewpoints, yes? It's hard to see then how anyone could take it as proving either.
That's the point! It couldn't be taken as proof just like it's inverse counterpart of brain stimulation.

People can look at it as empirical evidence for ones own free-will effecting their brain-waves. Looking at it from the 1st person that's exactly what you would see it as. Within a wider context of perspectives this relationship doesn't hold up though. Same can be said of the inverse.

On the other hand, the evidence we have from direct brain stimulation and brain damage is quite clear. When we stimulate someone else's brain with an electrode, we're modifying the brain but we're not directly modifying their mental activity at all. Since this causes a change in their mental activity, it's quite clear we have an arrow of causation brain->mind. And the wide range of effects we can have on the mind in this way shows that most aspects of the mind must indeed be caused by the brain.
Ahh so when you are modifying the brain indirectly by modifying mind it doesn't mean anything. But when you are modifying the mind indirectly my modifying brain it proves something.

That logic is fallacious in that it is grounded in the assertion of a disconnect between mind and brain in the first place.

It goes:
There is a disconnect between mind and brain.
Change to brain is applied
A change in consciousness is reported
therefore there is a causal relation.


And how do we know this change between mind and brain is not instantaneous with no causation in between?

Where precisely is this causation taking place?

Like I said, people re-affirm their own biases.


randomly: It's completely unclear to me why you would want to draw the odd hierarchical diagrams you were drawing in those posts, or why you think these are implied by the brain being the source of the mind and why that's a problem. Also, "pre-hension" isn't a word. Perhaps you meant something else? Or are you inventing your own words?
Ok, how would you draw the hierarchical structure? Where does mind fit into the picture?

And yes pre-hension is a word. Although I meant it as very simple internal existance rather than mental activity as we know it.
 
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MrM said:
If minds caused brains rather than brains (activity) causing minds, why would a blow to the head cause the kind of mental problems that it does?
I think this serves to re-affirm that a concrete relationship between the two exists. It does serve as a negation or a limitation, but how does this prove causation?


I'm not trying to be cute by pulling up Hume or anything if that's the idea some of you are getting. I just believe the relationship between mind, and brain are one of an interior and an exterior. Aspects of the same thing. Not as two objects acting on each other.

But more importantly so, I think the issue at hand is how we are going about interpreting this aspect of the world. Maybe I'm completely off about the way I model the mind / brain relationship. The underlying issue at hand is how we go about forming this interpretation, and the limitations under which we do so.
 
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