AbleArcher83
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Apr 28, 2016
- Messages
- 64
I am not sure if you are familiar with the symptoms and course of schizophrenia, but I imagine perceiving this drug to cause symptoms of schizophrenia would happen as follows: Patient goes full-on batshit, gets treated with neuroleptics. Positive symptoms slowly dissipate and make way for negative symptoms which are then attributed to the drug. Neuroleptics don't really treat negative symptoms and if a person only had a single episode or two with years in between, the dose should be lowered quickly once he emerges from the acute pychotic state. If that doesn't happen, neuroleptics will have anyone feel like complete and utter shit, but blaming the drug for the symptoms experienced with such certainty when those symptoms are the exact same the illness would cause without the drug is just foolish, no offense. It's absolutely irrational. It's like blaming the stars for the sun not to shine.
Wow. Never seen that happen. Would love to hear the whole story!
I read something online called the Mandela effect. Go look it up at your own discretion. There are countless YouTube videos on it as well. I suggest you look into it deeply and it may really shock you to the core and question everything about reality. Once you look into the Mandela effect with an open mind and not be quick to dismiss it, then you will understand why I was misdiagnosed and forced to take Invega Sustenna for 5 months at 50 ML per month (not a high dose, thank god). I was basically on a low dose because I had no hallucinations nor heard any voices and my delusions weren't really delusion. In fact, thousands of people are affected by the Mandela effect and you may be one of them. Just look into it and watch some YouTube videos on the subject and never doubt your own memories. I am telling you this now because the Mandela effect will shock you to the core.