speedballs_over
Bluelighter
The question:
I can't grasp how 6-mg/day of diclazepam held a four year, high dose, everyday all day c-lam habit when a switch to 6-mg/day of diclaz was made while steady at 3.3-mg/day c-lam? That's less than 1-mg c-lam per 2-mg diclaz. Well known sources, high purity powder for both.
I know the identity of each benzo is correct. 0.25-mg of my c-lam wiped out any non-highly benzo tolerant person who tried it. Bam, out cold after a half hour of bliss.
How is this possible? Have others experienced the same or opposite? Doesn't it seem impossible? Very, very minor w/ds for two days post c-lam cessation.
Details:
3.3-mg/day was my c-lam dose for the two weeks preceding the shift. I'd tapered with c-lam from 4.5- to 3.3-mg/day over the six weeks before the switch. I'd dosed as high as 5.5-mg c-lam for six months during year three, but was at 4.5-mg/day for about the final year of the four year run, and I'd had a prior decade of prescribed 4-mg/day clonazepam daily before c-lam. I stopped the clonazepam of course never dosed both clonaz's at the same time.
I don't get it. 1-mg diclaz is supposedly equal to 10-mg diazepam with some saying less and few stating 1:20-mg (even if that were that were the case I think it's a wonder nonetheless).
How is this possible with known high purity c-lam from several reputable sources of assayed product >> 90%?
Both RC benzos as powder prepared in situ with PG taking great care and many years of professional experiencing preparing USP FDA prescription pharmaceuticals.
More info desired? Pls ask.
I can't grasp how 6-mg/day of diclazepam held a four year, high dose, everyday all day c-lam habit when a switch to 6-mg/day of diclaz was made while steady at 3.3-mg/day c-lam? That's less than 1-mg c-lam per 2-mg diclaz. Well known sources, high purity powder for both.
I know the identity of each benzo is correct. 0.25-mg of my c-lam wiped out any non-highly benzo tolerant person who tried it. Bam, out cold after a half hour of bliss.
How is this possible? Have others experienced the same or opposite? Doesn't it seem impossible? Very, very minor w/ds for two days post c-lam cessation.
Details:
3.3-mg/day was my c-lam dose for the two weeks preceding the shift. I'd tapered with c-lam from 4.5- to 3.3-mg/day over the six weeks before the switch. I'd dosed as high as 5.5-mg c-lam for six months during year three, but was at 4.5-mg/day for about the final year of the four year run, and I'd had a prior decade of prescribed 4-mg/day clonazepam daily before c-lam. I stopped the clonazepam of course never dosed both clonaz's at the same time.
I don't get it. 1-mg diclaz is supposedly equal to 10-mg diazepam with some saying less and few stating 1:20-mg (even if that were that were the case I think it's a wonder nonetheless).
How is this possible with known high purity c-lam from several reputable sources of assayed product >> 90%?
Both RC benzos as powder prepared in situ with PG taking great care and many years of professional experiencing preparing USP FDA prescription pharmaceuticals.
More info desired? Pls ask.