Cocaine Can stimulant withdrawal mimic opiate intoxication?

[Bomb319]

Not that I would actively test this theory, but withdrawal symtoms from any drug are essentially OPPOSITE to those which the drug produce due to suppression of their natural production (or receptors). Opiates produce calm, sleepiness, suppress yawning and sneezing etc. while withdrawal is so unpleasant because it pretty much produces the exact opposite. But those who desire these effects typically gravitate towards stimulants to experience increased alertness and such.

Obviously there's most likely more to it than simply this (dopamine is released somehow with uppers and downers) but my question is, theoretically (or has anyone here tried) if someone is experiencing nightmarish opate withdrawal and has a continued lack of opiates but has access to coke, could they purposely use that excessively for a period - not to enjoy the coke rush, but to effectively "enjoy" the withdrawal it can produce?

 

[mike.vick]

if you experienced this phenomenon then, yes, for you it can. But its not because of any binding on the cellular level, it's a manifestation of a mimicking feeling.

 

[mostly-human]

In a word; no. Definitely not in the scientific/empirical sense and in my personal experience - not even in the subjective, anecdotal sense.

 

[nasir~]

In a word; no. Definitely not in the scientific/empirical sense and in my personal experience - not even in the subjective, anecdotal sense.

^this

Not that I would actively test this theory, but withdrawal symtoms from any drug are essentially OPPOSITE to those which the drug produce due to suppression of their natural production (or receptors). Opiates produce calm, sleepiness, suppress yawning and sneezing etc. while withdrawal is so unpleasant because it pretty much produces the exact opposite. But those who desire these effects typically gravitate towards stimulants to experience increased alertness and such.

A lot of people do actually enjoy "both" kind of drugs. I do opiates for a couple of reasons.The sedation is definitely one of the least desired effects for me.
At the end of the day I take drugs like (meth-)amphetamine, cocaine(don't like this one that much, though.), stims in general and opiates for very similar reasons. I think the key reasons are the feeling of contentment, self-confidence, happiness but of course also (trying) to achieve the feeling of pure bliss.
Actually at the "peak" of such "highs" most people would describe their experience/their feelings quite similar. Whether or not it's achieved by oxycodone or (dextro-)methamphetamine.

Obviously there's most likely more to it than simply this (dopamine is released somehow with uppers and downers) but my question is, theoretically (or has anyone here tried) if someone is experiencing nightmarish opate withdrawal and has a continued lack of opiates but has access to coke, could they purposely use that excessively for a period - not to enjoy the coke rush, but to effectively "enjoy" the withdrawal it can produce?

It really, absolutely doesn't work this way!

As anecdotal evidence: When I'm going through 'PAWS' (caused by stopping opis) I find a sensible dose of amphetamine, for example, quite helpful actually.

 

[hydr0m0rph]

No. Stopping the use of a stim does not release opiaes that would stimulate opiate receptors. i have actually used meth to quit from a large heroin habit.. first 3 days smoked the load of clear.. and popped xanax like m&ms.. till i collapsed on the floor passed out.. woke up feeling like death.. and all the withdrawals hit me.. anyway.. it actualoly covers the symptoms somewhat.. but not recommended

 

[neurotic]

not at all

stimulants would be amazing if by the comedown you felt opiated tho, gosh