• N&PD Moderators: Skorpio

Can someone explain the logic behind this binding profile??

Alright - pardon me for being repetitive.
In fact, if you can link me a research paper of reference of some kind that explains the pure mechanics of binding affinity, that would probably be easiest.

Understanding the mechanics if binding isn't really necessary to understand these issues. Basically, the occupation level is calculated by taking the ligand concentration divided by the sum of the ligand concentration and the Ki.

In other words:

%occupation = [L]/([L]+[Ki])

So you know that 50% of the receptors will be occupied at the Ki. This gives you a working range of concentrations where a drug will interact with a receptor. At concentrations below the range there will be no interaction and above the range the receptor will be saturated and the response will max out.

That is why I keep emphasizing that Ki is not a relative measure -- ie, it isn't necessarily bad if a drug has micromolar affinity. When you see an affinity value, the immediate question in your mind should be whether it is possible that the in vivo concentration is likely to be similar. Micromolar drug concentrations in tissues are not uncommon, but mM concentrations are not as common. But ethanol concentrations are known to rise to the mM level when people drink. Mescaline has pretty low affinity for 5-HT2A receptors, which is why it takes hundreds of mg to produce a response.

In that absence of that however:

1) the concentration of the drug at site of action.
This is evaluated based on - drug dose? So like I mentioned, putting the Ki value in perspective of the mg dose the drug is being administered at.

No, this is determined by actually measuring the concentration in tissues or body fluids. Usually you can look up the plasma concentration, and potentially the ratio of blood/brain levels may be known. Even better, someone may have measured receptor occupancy using PET imaging.



2) How selective is the drug: In terms of the various receptors it binds to?
Yes exactly. This determines how much occupation you can achieve at the primary site of action without producing side effects.

3) Drug efficacy - receptor occupation: This is ultimately the information I'm interested in, and I had assumed was dictated through the binding values.
Are you referring here to the Ki values?

No, this is different than the Ki. The Ki measures the interaction of a ligand and its binding site. Efficacy refers to effects downstream from binding.

For antagonists, as a general rule, receptor occupation is often a useful predictor of response. So 50% occupation is a good place to start at for an antagonist. But for some things, 10% occupation may be sufficient, or you may need 100%. It depends on what you are trying to block.

The situation is even more complex with agonists, which produce graded responses. Each agonist has an intrinsic efficacy, which is a measure of how effectively it can activate a receptor. But even knowing the efficacy isn't sufficient to understand how an agonist acts in a particular tissue, because you also have to account for receptor reserve.

Obviously there are several complexities associated with trying to predict in vivo responses based on in vitro measures. The way around this problem is to measure tissue responses to a drug, for example using neurochemical methods, electrophysiology, or imaging. That way you can know what drug concentration is required to produce a given response in a particular tissue. That is a good guide for estimating the concentration range that is likely to produce a therapeutic response.

Again - perhaps a slew of questions but, evaluating the drugs ultimate efficacy at a particular receptor, it's lack of effect on another receptor, appears to me at least to be a fairly complex topic - which will probably require a greater level of understanding than that which can be gleaned from a two or three line explanation.

1) Take vortioxetine as an example.
How exactly are we being made aware what the "typical concentration" is??
You are mixing up two different topics. Affinities are discussed to understand what receptors a drug binds to and its relative selectivity. This is information about pharmacodynamics.

The in vivo concentration is information about drug pharmacokinetics, which is a completely different aspect of pharmacology. Combining what is known about the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of a medication allows you to understand how it works in the body.

[TABLE="class: wikitable"]
[TR]
[TD]Target[/TD]
[TD]Affinity[/TD]
[TD="colspan: 2"]Functional activity[/TD]
[TD]Pharmacodynamic action[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]Ki (nM)[/TD]
[TD]IC50 / EC50 (nM)[/TD]
[TD]IA (%)[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]SERT*[/TD]
[TD]1.6[/TD]
[TD]5.4[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]Inhibition[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]NET*[/TD]
[TD]113[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]Inhibition[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]5-HT1A*[/TD]
[TD]15[/TD]
[TD]200[/TD]
[TD]96[/TD]
[TD]Agonist[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]5-HT1B*[/TD]
[TD]33[/TD]
[TD]120[/TD]
[TD]55[/TD]
[TD]Partial agonist[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]5-HT1D*[/TD]
[TD]54[/TD]
[TD]370[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]Antagonist[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]5-HT3*[/TD]
[TD]3.7[/TD]
[TD]12[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]Antagonist[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]5-HT7*[/TD]
[TD]19[/TD]
[TD]450[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]Antagonist[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]β1-adrenoceptor[/TD]
[TD]46[6][/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]
2) Okay - this one I think I get. Lesser Ki value at other sites, increase the dose and the the effect are the relevant receptor, without implicating the lesser valued receptors.

3) For some effects, only low level occupation is required.

Does this not allude to the potency of the drug?
By example - say, in terms of the not-so-well-informed, there's a neurochemical deficit of, noradrenaline.
The patients wish, is to correct this.
There, said patient would want a drug with high affinity for NET, alpha 2 blockade (antagonism or inverse agonism), and 5HT2c blockade (same effect) - the latter two implicating the potentiation of noradrenalines "presence"? It's effect, basically.

So given that that's the desired "effect" - what benefit would a lesser "occupation" be required?

Like I said - if you could direct me to a relevant wiki page or book chapter or research paper delineating this info - well, I'd appreciate a response regardless but, doing so would probably save us all time.

The amount of ground you want to cover encompasses an entire pharmacology course.

In terms of your question, there is no way to predict the answer with the information given. The drug company worked with the FDA to try to figure out a range of doses that produce brain concentrations that (1) yield interactions with NET, 5-HT2C, and alpha2 receptors sufficient to produce therapeutic effects, but (2) are not too high to produce off-target effects that could produce side-effects or toxicity.

Often, you are not going to know the tissue concentration of the drug when you read a table like that. What the table does is help to clarify which sites the drug may be interacting with in the brain, and which of those sites may be responsible for the therapeutic effects. You should be paying attention to the affinity at the primary target(s) relative to the other sites. Optimally, the Ki for the primary sites of action is at least 10- to 100-fold higher than other sites. If that isn't the case then you have to think about what side-effects may occur due to those secondary interactions.
 
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The amount of ground you want to cover encompasses an entire pharmacology course.


I'm currently reviewing Essential Pharmacology 4th edition by Steven Stahl.

I'm looking purely at the neuromechanics and AD sections specifically - excluding other conditions like ADHD, schizophrenia etc.

Now, I've just started into it and am about 30 pages into the first relevant chapter.

At some point, should I stumble into what you've explained and alluded to?
Would that specific information be included in such a book?

And if not, can you recommend a book that would?
I'm downloading from library genesis so, preferably one that's available there.
 
Having a Ki of 631 nM doesn't necessarily mean that the effect is weak. Whether or not an affinity value is "weak" depends on a variety of factors.
1. What is the concentration of the drug at its site of action? If the typical concentration is 5 nM, then the affinity is low. However, if 500 nM is a typical concentration, then the situation is totally different.
2. How selective is the drug? If the drig has 10-fold lower affinity for all other sites, for example, then you can keep raising the dose until you see activity without inducing side effects.
3. For some effects, you may only need low levels of receptor occupation, so the Ki may be misleading.

Where
Where can I find the drug concentration values expressed in nM??

Are they listed anywhere on wiki, as is with the binding Ki values:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pharmacology_of_antidepressants

The pharmacokinetic subsections only list times until max concentration etc.
No actual figures seem to be provided.
 
BT
BTW - what you've explained is certainly beginning to makes sense.

That being said, I would like to be in a position to gauge the actual functional activity at each receptor site, so I can make more accurate drug comparisons

And in terms of the formula you posted:

%occupation = [L]/([L]+[Ki])

This has gotta sound out of place but, in terms of what an actual ligand is, and what its value is to input into that formula - I am not clear on.
And also radioligand...

But most importantly, where I find the value L, for the above formula.
Where are they listed for different drugs?
 
You should be paying attention to the affinity at the primary target(s) relative to the other sites.


And relative to this, for agomelatine.

It's Ki value for 5HT2c is 6000nM, and 0.1nM for melatonin - albeit being a melatonergic agonist, and antagonist at the other site.

But looking at them comparisons - I mean, would it not make sense that if the concentration was pushed to high, giving it's insanely strong binding for melatonin, in order to get a sufficient outcome at the 5HT site, the concentration would need to be extremely high, given its Ki value there.
Which could lead to adverse affects due to excessive functional action, as it were, at the melatonin sites.

If the melatonin Ki values were weaker, then it would make sense to me that the drugs effect on NA and DA could be appreciable, given the potential for higher concentrations.

But the melatonin values would suggest that concentrations cannot be pushed high enough to have such an effect, no?
 
Where
Where can I find the drug concentration values expressed in nM??

Are they listed anywhere on wiki, as is with the binding Ki values:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pharmacology_of_antidepressants

The pharmacokinetic subsections only list times until max concentration etc.
No actual figures seem to be provided.

Secondary sources like these should be avoided because they may contain mistakes. Consult the origional papers by searching for them on pubmed. You can also use the cited references listed on Wikipedia to dig up the original papers, which will show how the concentration changes over time and will list the Cmax.

BT
BTW - what you've explained is certainly beginning to makes sense.

That being said, I would like to be in a position to gauge the actual functional activity at each receptor site, so I can make more accurate drug comparisons

And in terms of the formula you posted:

%occupation = [L]/([L]+[Ki])

This has gotta sound out of place but, in terms of what an actual ligand is, and what its value is to input into that formula - I am not clear on.
And also radioligand...

But most importantly, where I find the value L, for the above formula.
Where are they listed for different drugs?
[L] is the in vivo concentration, in molar values, for the drug at the time of interest.
 
My brain is way too fried at the moment to process any kind of detailed information.

Knocking the wellbutrin up to 450 mg has left me for dead over the last week or ten days.
Horrible.
I thought it would induce a nice pleasant seizure or something.
One minute I'd be exhausted and fatigue and the next thing - WEEEEEEEEEE (cause I understand seizures put you to sleep basically - and often act as mood enhancers).

But no - it's just drained me of all life.
Horrible.

Anyways

[TABLE="class: wikitable"]
[TR]
[TD]Target[/TD]
[TD]Affinity[/TD]
[TD="colspan: 2"]Functional activity[/TD]
[TD]Pharmacodynamic action[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]Ki (nM)[/TD]
[TD]IC50 / EC50 (nM)[/TD]
[TD]IA (%)[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]SERT*[/TD]
[TD]1.6[/TD]
[TD]5.4[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]Inhibition[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]NET*[/TD]
[TD]113[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]Inhibition[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]5-HT1A*[/TD]
[TD]15[/TD]
[TD]200[/TD]
[TD]96[/TD]
[TD]Agonist[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]5-HT1B*[/TD]
[TD]33[/TD]
[TD]120[/TD]
[TD]55[/TD]
[TD]Partial agonist[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]5-HT1D*[/TD]
[TD]54[/TD]
[TD]370[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]Antagonist[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]5-HT3*[/TD]
[TD]3.7[/TD]
[TD]12[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]Antagonist[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]5-HT7*[/TD]
[TD]19[/TD]
[TD]450[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]Antagonist[/TD]
[/TR]
[TR]
[TD]β1-adrenoceptor[/TD]
[TD]46[6][/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]—[/TD]
[TD]—
[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]


Basically - if you guys can do the thinking for me here.

For SERT - the ki binding value is high, but it's functional activity low, thus low effect on serotonin reuptake inhibition.
But it has strong IC50 values at the 5HT receptor subtypes - so significant functional activity there - which is what brintellix is reputed for.
This resulting in a low side effect profile.

What I want to know is - where can I find the functional activity, IC50 values in nM, for other drugs.
Amoxapine, maprotaline etc.

And please - be sweet, and post a link.

I'm literally just holding it together.
Between effexor withdrawal, over cooking bupropion, and my doctor trying to convince me to come off meds altogether - I'm just held together by string at the moment.
Help a brother out, hmm?
 
There are links on the wikipedia pages - but mostly from articles from the Journal of Clinical Pharmacology/Psychiatry - which are not accessible to lay persons such as myself.

Are there any sites that we can circumvent them pay-for sites - like library genesis is for books?

I also downloaded The Pharmalogical basis of theraputics - from libgen - so hope there's some good information in there.
 
People like Sci-hub. Should be able to plug in the DOI.

But between PubMed abstracts (sometimes they link to full articles/PMC) and PMC itself you could probably find in general what you want to know.
 
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