MachineGunBallad
Bluelighter
http://www.nature.com/bjp/journal/v141/n7/full/0705722a.html
I am not familiar with neurochemistry and its jargon, but for those who are, would it be possible to translate the significance of this study? The impression I get is that there is growing evidence, which this study seems to contribute to, that psychotropic substances are partially serotin antagonists rather than agonists, as is commonly believed. What's the importance of this in terms of neurotoxicity of these chemicals?
I am not familiar with neurochemistry and its jargon, but for those who are, would it be possible to translate the significance of this study? The impression I get is that there is growing evidence, which this study seems to contribute to, that psychotropic substances are partially serotin antagonists rather than agonists, as is commonly believed. What's the importance of this in terms of neurotoxicity of these chemicals?