phung
Greenlighter
- Joined
- Aug 5, 2006
- Messages
- 9
A friend of mine is a lawyer and is representing a client who had their blood drawn after a traffic stop. They found .45mg/L of phenazepam and claim this is above therapeutic levels. I'm not sure how this was established, considering it's not FDA approved for "therapy," nor is the concentration going to affect all equally. His client had been addicted to his legally prescribed xanax prescription (3mg/day) for ~10 years.
Suffice to say, he was responsibly using phenazepam to taper off of benzos due to its extended half life. It is my understanding that phenazepam can bio-accumulate if taken daily, (like methadone.) And without being a toxicologist, I assume that one could simply take .45mg x 5L (liters of blood in the adult body) = 2.25 mg bio-available. Now depending on which benzodiazapine equivalency chart you subscribe to, 1mg of xanax is equal to .5~1mg of phenazepam. So theoretically this amount (1.125-2.25mg) of phenazepam could be roughly equivalent to the prescribed amount of xanax. If anyone could weigh in on whether this reasoning is accurate, it could save a person from unjust persecution by the legal system. Thanks!
Suffice to say, he was responsibly using phenazepam to taper off of benzos due to its extended half life. It is my understanding that phenazepam can bio-accumulate if taken daily, (like methadone.) And without being a toxicologist, I assume that one could simply take .45mg x 5L (liters of blood in the adult body) = 2.25 mg bio-available. Now depending on which benzodiazapine equivalency chart you subscribe to, 1mg of xanax is equal to .5~1mg of phenazepam. So theoretically this amount (1.125-2.25mg) of phenazepam could be roughly equivalent to the prescribed amount of xanax. If anyone could weigh in on whether this reasoning is accurate, it could save a person from unjust persecution by the legal system. Thanks!
