atara
Bluelighter
The hunt is on for mood stabilizers that don't have terrible side-effects. By 'hunt', I of course mean 'stumbling around in the darkness' and a small dose of 'trying to fix lithium'. Lithium is effective but it occasionally kills people who take it.
Antidepressants do not cause mania. Tricyclic receptor-profile drugs do. SSRIs do not. These are the binding profiles of the tricyclics:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tricyclic_antidepressant#Binding_profiles
Compare to the atypicals:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atypic...human_receptors_unless_otherwise_specified.29
These are antimanic. But they look like tricyclics on the binding profile. What gives? Well, the atypicals don't touch the transporters. SSRIs do, though. What's left? NET. Quick, let's look at some NRIs.
http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/...sCustomisedMessage=&userIsAuthenticated=false
SNRIs cause mania! What of the others?
Desipramine is a norepinephrine-selective antidepressant. It too causes mania:
http://psycnet.apa.org/psycinfo/1995-18585-001
Bupropion, however, does not. What can we make of this? Bupropion affects dopamine. Atomoxetine has caused some problems: http://journals.lww.com/psychopharm...Induction_Associated_With_Atomoxetine.24.aspx but not in conjunction with anticonvulsants: http://online.liebertpub.com/doi/abs/10.1089/cap.2005.15.996
We run into the problem that it isn't a popular study tactic to throw drugs at bipolar patients and try to make them crazy. Methylphenidate, for example, is fine in conjunction with mood stabilizers: http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/...sCustomisedMessage=&userIsAuthenticated=false but seems to be safe without them: http://online.liebertpub.com/doi/abs/10.1089/104454603322163844?journalCode=cap
So norepinephrinergic drugs obviously do something weird relating to bipolar. We don't know what, though.
Which brings us to clonidine. Clonidine is antiadrenergic via alpha-2. It is used as an abortive treatment for panic attacks. It also treats acute mania:
http://psycnet.apa.org/psycinfo/1987-11183-001
http://psycnet.apa.org/psycinfo/1987-11174-001 -- it is not as effective as lithium
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/2693073 -- measured, but not statistically significant against placebo
http://ajp.psychiatryonline.org/article.aspx?articleID=158561
Unfortunately clonidine only works about half of the time, this seems to be the rule rather than the exception.
The thing is, all of this time we've been assuming there's a "condition" called "bipolar disorder", a patient has the condition, and a drug treats the condition. But that isn't true. A patient has a condition, which has certain characteristics we call "bipolar". Everyone can only have one condition. The mixed results with clonidine were discarded, clonidine isn't considered as a possible anti-bipolar agent anymore, but seem to suggest: bipolar disorder may be segregated into clonidine-sensitive and clonidine-insensitive conditions. Look at the first study more closely:
"Ss who had had a good response to neuroleptics during a previous manic episode tended not to respond to clonidine."
Here "neuroleptics" usually means "dopamine antagonists". Bipolar patients who respond to clonidine respond less to dopamine antagonists; bipolar patients who respond to dopamine antagonists respond less to clonidine. We have a working theory. Atypicals antagonize both dopamine and adrenergic receptors, which seems sort of warm and fuzzy. The point of all of this, of course, is that clonidine is much milder -- way milder -- than most normal drugs given to bipolar patients, valproate, lamotrigine, quetiapine, etc.
So, is it possible that clonidine-sensitive bipolar disorder is a thing? Or were the clonidine successes just dumb luck?
Of course, the -other- difference between atypicals and tricyclics is mAChR. Here we have a much clearer picture: choline supplements do a thing, verified by multiple double-blind placebo-controlled trials.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/7051871
http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/0006322395004238
http://journals.lww.com/psychopharm...ndomized,_Placebo_Controlled_Trial_of.15.aspx
However, neither choline supplements nor bipolar-treatment drugs exhibit cholinergic activity in the brain! See:
http://www.biomedcentral.com/1475-2832/3/13
http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1002/mrm.1910390619/full
Of course, we as humans have a thing called "intuition" and intuition would like to believe that more dietary choline --> more neural choline. The effects of choline given orally clash hard with our intuition. It doesn't work how we expect it to. But it does work. Three times, three double-blind studies, choline does something. But what the hell does it do?
END NOTE: bluelight ADD is a pharmacology discussion forum, but it is not a medical advice board. Please do not make treatment decisions for yourself, always consult a physician.
Antidepressants do not cause mania. Tricyclic receptor-profile drugs do. SSRIs do not. These are the binding profiles of the tricyclics:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tricyclic_antidepressant#Binding_profiles
Compare to the atypicals:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atypic...human_receptors_unless_otherwise_specified.29
These are antimanic. But they look like tricyclics on the binding profile. What gives? Well, the atypicals don't touch the transporters. SSRIs do, though. What's left? NET. Quick, let's look at some NRIs.
http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/...sCustomisedMessage=&userIsAuthenticated=false
SNRIs cause mania! What of the others?
Desipramine is a norepinephrine-selective antidepressant. It too causes mania:
http://psycnet.apa.org/psycinfo/1995-18585-001
Bupropion, however, does not. What can we make of this? Bupropion affects dopamine. Atomoxetine has caused some problems: http://journals.lww.com/psychopharm...Induction_Associated_With_Atomoxetine.24.aspx but not in conjunction with anticonvulsants: http://online.liebertpub.com/doi/abs/10.1089/cap.2005.15.996
We run into the problem that it isn't a popular study tactic to throw drugs at bipolar patients and try to make them crazy. Methylphenidate, for example, is fine in conjunction with mood stabilizers: http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/...sCustomisedMessage=&userIsAuthenticated=false but seems to be safe without them: http://online.liebertpub.com/doi/abs/10.1089/104454603322163844?journalCode=cap
So norepinephrinergic drugs obviously do something weird relating to bipolar. We don't know what, though.
Which brings us to clonidine. Clonidine is antiadrenergic via alpha-2. It is used as an abortive treatment for panic attacks. It also treats acute mania:
http://psycnet.apa.org/psycinfo/1987-11183-001
http://psycnet.apa.org/psycinfo/1987-11174-001 -- it is not as effective as lithium
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/2693073 -- measured, but not statistically significant against placebo
http://ajp.psychiatryonline.org/article.aspx?articleID=158561
Unfortunately clonidine only works about half of the time, this seems to be the rule rather than the exception.
The thing is, all of this time we've been assuming there's a "condition" called "bipolar disorder", a patient has the condition, and a drug treats the condition. But that isn't true. A patient has a condition, which has certain characteristics we call "bipolar". Everyone can only have one condition. The mixed results with clonidine were discarded, clonidine isn't considered as a possible anti-bipolar agent anymore, but seem to suggest: bipolar disorder may be segregated into clonidine-sensitive and clonidine-insensitive conditions. Look at the first study more closely:
"Ss who had had a good response to neuroleptics during a previous manic episode tended not to respond to clonidine."
Here "neuroleptics" usually means "dopamine antagonists". Bipolar patients who respond to clonidine respond less to dopamine antagonists; bipolar patients who respond to dopamine antagonists respond less to clonidine. We have a working theory. Atypicals antagonize both dopamine and adrenergic receptors, which seems sort of warm and fuzzy. The point of all of this, of course, is that clonidine is much milder -- way milder -- than most normal drugs given to bipolar patients, valproate, lamotrigine, quetiapine, etc.
So, is it possible that clonidine-sensitive bipolar disorder is a thing? Or were the clonidine successes just dumb luck?
Of course, the -other- difference between atypicals and tricyclics is mAChR. Here we have a much clearer picture: choline supplements do a thing, verified by multiple double-blind placebo-controlled trials.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/7051871
http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/0006322395004238
http://journals.lww.com/psychopharm...ndomized,_Placebo_Controlled_Trial_of.15.aspx
However, neither choline supplements nor bipolar-treatment drugs exhibit cholinergic activity in the brain! See:
http://www.biomedcentral.com/1475-2832/3/13
http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1002/mrm.1910390619/full
Of course, we as humans have a thing called "intuition" and intuition would like to believe that more dietary choline --> more neural choline. The effects of choline given orally clash hard with our intuition. It doesn't work how we expect it to. But it does work. Three times, three double-blind studies, choline does something. But what the hell does it do?
END NOTE: bluelight ADD is a pharmacology discussion forum, but it is not a medical advice board. Please do not make treatment decisions for yourself, always consult a physician.
