Let's say for instance, someone takes methadone, a full mu-agonist. But people don't get that rush kind of high you do with oxycodone, fentanyl or diamorphine, which all have short half lives. Why are short half life opiates better shit? Same with benzos... valium comes on slow and doesnt have much bang, but halcion is pretty euphoric. both opposite ends of the spectrum there, too.
I understand downregulation occurs with repeated binding, which ends up leading to dependence or changes, such as with opioids. So, when a drug binds, and an action potential is sent out (or inhibition of one), how long does the drug stay bound to the receptor? Does it continually stimulate it until its decayed with a time according to its half life? Does it unbind and go on to bind to other neurons? I've noticed tolerance can skyrocket after methadone doses; is it because the molecules stay bound to the same neurons for a long time, or do they stay a while, then unattach and still have plenty of time to affect other neurons?
Hope this isn't written too messy. Its been bugging me curiosity wise.
Peace,
Hiss
I understand downregulation occurs with repeated binding, which ends up leading to dependence or changes, such as with opioids. So, when a drug binds, and an action potential is sent out (or inhibition of one), how long does the drug stay bound to the receptor? Does it continually stimulate it until its decayed with a time according to its half life? Does it unbind and go on to bind to other neurons? I've noticed tolerance can skyrocket after methadone doses; is it because the molecules stay bound to the same neurons for a long time, or do they stay a while, then unattach and still have plenty of time to affect other neurons?
Hope this isn't written too messy. Its been bugging me curiosity wise.
Peace,
Hiss
