I am fairly new on the forums, but familiar with this site's amazing database of knowledge. Notwithstanding, for the moderate amount of searching I have done through the sections and their posts, I could not find a topic that sufficiently resolved my inquiry. First, let me explain some background information.
I am presently prescribed one 30 mg temazepam at night, and, supplementary, as much as [I feel I need] three 2 mg alprazolams. This means I consume a massive amount of benzodiazepines every twenty-four hours. Moreover, I had severely abused alcohol, including an over indulgence in opiates, cannabis, and sporadic benzodiazepine binges, for three, two and a half, five, three years, respectively. I also smoked a pack of cigarettes daily, for several years, but since October of last year, I have essentially been clean, save for my prescriptions, which I do not abuse.
Yet, this is actually an inquiry about what has more potential for recreational misuse: ambien CR or temazepam [commonly, restoril]? I have such a high tolerance to benzos, that I need to take around 14 - 16 milligrams of alprazolam or similar benzodiazepines, like clonazepam, to become 'high.' Likewise, I would probably need to swallow approximately 300 mg of temazepam for equal effects. This 'intoxication' does not really prohibit me from functioning, unless I 'trigger' them with weed or alcohol. Although I am technically, by a medical definition, 'high,' I am not truly "fucked up."
Many people consider the stupor produced by benzodiazepines tantamount to the inebriation induced by alcohol. However, I do not really become like that, at the aforementioned 'threshold' dose. I might be slower, cognitively, but I am not stumbling and slurring my speech, like the drunkard I [am ashamed to admit I once] was. Before the temazepam, I was on 12.5 mg of ambien CR, which put me in a quasi-hallucinatory state for about fifteen minutes, following twenty minutes of oral administration, by chewing the pill like candy. I would not label myself as 'tripping,' like I have seen others from just regular zolpidem, but my vision was distorted and my computer monitor was warping, along with some psychedelic thoughts. Nevertheless, I quickly returned to normal, and, after a few days of being on it, not even three or four would return me to that semi-euphoria I initially felt.
I am not worried about addiction or abuse anymore, as I live within easy access to just about any drug one could imagine, including chemicals with numbers in their names, haha. I enjoyed partying when I was in my youth and I volitionally isolate myself from society, so as to concentrate on my studies and avoid the hedonistic pleasures of a distorted reality.
For the sake of brevity, I am going to see my psychiatrist within the next week. I can either return to 12.5 mg Ambien CR or continue with the 30 mg Temazepam. Those who are experienced with hypnotics and anxiolytics, please give me your input in which I should select. Neither really work better than the other, but it is mostly for other people who so desire the said drugs. Like, hypothetically, if I were to give one of these to a particular person, whose body is benzodiazepine-naive and imidazopyridine-naive, which would get them more messed up?
Thank you for any input you can share.
I am presently prescribed one 30 mg temazepam at night, and, supplementary, as much as [I feel I need] three 2 mg alprazolams. This means I consume a massive amount of benzodiazepines every twenty-four hours. Moreover, I had severely abused alcohol, including an over indulgence in opiates, cannabis, and sporadic benzodiazepine binges, for three, two and a half, five, three years, respectively. I also smoked a pack of cigarettes daily, for several years, but since October of last year, I have essentially been clean, save for my prescriptions, which I do not abuse.
Yet, this is actually an inquiry about what has more potential for recreational misuse: ambien CR or temazepam [commonly, restoril]? I have such a high tolerance to benzos, that I need to take around 14 - 16 milligrams of alprazolam or similar benzodiazepines, like clonazepam, to become 'high.' Likewise, I would probably need to swallow approximately 300 mg of temazepam for equal effects. This 'intoxication' does not really prohibit me from functioning, unless I 'trigger' them with weed or alcohol. Although I am technically, by a medical definition, 'high,' I am not truly "fucked up."
Many people consider the stupor produced by benzodiazepines tantamount to the inebriation induced by alcohol. However, I do not really become like that, at the aforementioned 'threshold' dose. I might be slower, cognitively, but I am not stumbling and slurring my speech, like the drunkard I [am ashamed to admit I once] was. Before the temazepam, I was on 12.5 mg of ambien CR, which put me in a quasi-hallucinatory state for about fifteen minutes, following twenty minutes of oral administration, by chewing the pill like candy. I would not label myself as 'tripping,' like I have seen others from just regular zolpidem, but my vision was distorted and my computer monitor was warping, along with some psychedelic thoughts. Nevertheless, I quickly returned to normal, and, after a few days of being on it, not even three or four would return me to that semi-euphoria I initially felt.
I am not worried about addiction or abuse anymore, as I live within easy access to just about any drug one could imagine, including chemicals with numbers in their names, haha. I enjoyed partying when I was in my youth and I volitionally isolate myself from society, so as to concentrate on my studies and avoid the hedonistic pleasures of a distorted reality.
For the sake of brevity, I am going to see my psychiatrist within the next week. I can either return to 12.5 mg Ambien CR or continue with the 30 mg Temazepam. Those who are experienced with hypnotics and anxiolytics, please give me your input in which I should select. Neither really work better than the other, but it is mostly for other people who so desire the said drugs. Like, hypothetically, if I were to give one of these to a particular person, whose body is benzodiazepine-naive and imidazopyridine-naive, which would get them more messed up?
Thank you for any input you can share.
