K'd-OUT-in-AZ
Bluelighter
Quick background: I've been on benzos for 11 years now & was prescribed doses of 2-8mg Klonopin -or- 2-8mg Xanax daily with 30-60mg Temazepam -or- .125mg-0.25mg Halcion. So I took a hypnotic nightly with either Klonopin or Xanax as my anxiolytic. Long story short, I quit by using the Diazepam taper which begun at 40mg. So I've been clean from benzodiazepines for 9 months with some bumps in the road.
My first relapse was about 5 months after I tapered. I took 1.5mg of Alprazolam and felt "nothing", literally nothing, not even drowsy. I was very disappointed. My second relapse, 6 months after taper, I went on a small run with diazepam and doses below 30mg did nothing but I was still able to get pretty fucked on doses around the 60-80mg range, especially 80mg. So that gave me hope that I could still at least get high on benzos still.
My third and current relapse I took 2mg lorazepam last night and felt some very little effects, sort of drowsy, moderate relief of anxiety. But this morning I took 4.5mg and feel very nice. I'm also aware that just 4mg of lorazepam can get me "high" (if you want to call it that.)
So here comes my question, since I felt nothing from 1.5mg alprazolam after 4 months clean does this mean my tolerance will always be this high, requiring much higher doses. Or maybe if I were to go an entire years clean might I have been able to feel it? Or do I now have a permanent tolerance to benzodiazepines since I was using such high doses for the longest time? I know I can still feel them but only at "relatively" high doses (for instant 60-80mg diazepam or 4-5mg lorazepam). Back when I was using these doses would have barely worked.
So how about it...does tolerance to benzodiazepines ever completely go away when you've been using them for very long periods of time (like 6 years or more, in my case 11) By "completely" going away I mean will your ever be able to get high on just 1mg of Klonopin or Alprazolam again. I know your tolerance decreases at least a little.
Experts and those with experience please help a confused benzo'd out guy.
My first relapse was about 5 months after I tapered. I took 1.5mg of Alprazolam and felt "nothing", literally nothing, not even drowsy. I was very disappointed. My second relapse, 6 months after taper, I went on a small run with diazepam and doses below 30mg did nothing but I was still able to get pretty fucked on doses around the 60-80mg range, especially 80mg. So that gave me hope that I could still at least get high on benzos still.
My third and current relapse I took 2mg lorazepam last night and felt some very little effects, sort of drowsy, moderate relief of anxiety. But this morning I took 4.5mg and feel very nice. I'm also aware that just 4mg of lorazepam can get me "high" (if you want to call it that.)
So here comes my question, since I felt nothing from 1.5mg alprazolam after 4 months clean does this mean my tolerance will always be this high, requiring much higher doses. Or maybe if I were to go an entire years clean might I have been able to feel it? Or do I now have a permanent tolerance to benzodiazepines since I was using such high doses for the longest time? I know I can still feel them but only at "relatively" high doses (for instant 60-80mg diazepam or 4-5mg lorazepam). Back when I was using these doses would have barely worked.
So how about it...does tolerance to benzodiazepines ever completely go away when you've been using them for very long periods of time (like 6 years or more, in my case 11) By "completely" going away I mean will your ever be able to get high on just 1mg of Klonopin or Alprazolam again. I know your tolerance decreases at least a little.
Experts and those with experience please help a confused benzo'd out guy.
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I would have to say that that was probably the hardest benzo spell that I had to get past.