A number of months ago, my psychiatrist recommended I try aripiprazole for the treatment of depression. I am somewhat opposed to the use of antipsychotics in the treatment of such conditions, but I went along with it and received a 14-day sample pack.
I ended up taking it for two days and simply felt stupid whilst on it. After conveying this information to my doctor, he said it was likely placebo effect, as it "takes two to three weeks to work". Nonetheless, he accepted my disinterest in taking the medication and other approaches were tried.
Does his assertion make sense to anyone here?
The effects of aripiprazole according to wikipedia are:
D2 Partial Agonist (Ki = 0.34 nM)
D3 Antagonist (Ki = 0.8 nM)
D4 Antagonist (Ki = 44 nM)
5-HT1A Partial Agonist (Ki = 0.34 nM)
5-HT2A Antagonist (Ki = 0.8 nM)
5-HT2C Partial Agonist (Ki = 15 nM)
5-HT7 Antagonist (Ki = 39 nM)
SRI (Ki = 98 nM)
Antihistamine (Ki = 61 nM)
α-adrenergic antagonist (Ki = 57 nM)
mACh receptor antagonist (IC50 >1000 nM)
Wouldn't most of these mechanisms be active immediately upon penetration of the BBB?
Granted, any downregulatory/upregulatory responses may take a few weeks, but I would assume that receptor antagonism could be noticeable on the first day. Am I way off on this, or was his explanation questionable?
I ended up taking it for two days and simply felt stupid whilst on it. After conveying this information to my doctor, he said it was likely placebo effect, as it "takes two to three weeks to work". Nonetheless, he accepted my disinterest in taking the medication and other approaches were tried.
Does his assertion make sense to anyone here?
The effects of aripiprazole according to wikipedia are:
D2 Partial Agonist (Ki = 0.34 nM)
D3 Antagonist (Ki = 0.8 nM)
D4 Antagonist (Ki = 44 nM)
5-HT1A Partial Agonist (Ki = 0.34 nM)
5-HT2A Antagonist (Ki = 0.8 nM)
5-HT2C Partial Agonist (Ki = 15 nM)
5-HT7 Antagonist (Ki = 39 nM)
SRI (Ki = 98 nM)
Antihistamine (Ki = 61 nM)
α-adrenergic antagonist (Ki = 57 nM)
mACh receptor antagonist (IC50 >1000 nM)
Wouldn't most of these mechanisms be active immediately upon penetration of the BBB?
Granted, any downregulatory/upregulatory responses may take a few weeks, but I would assume that receptor antagonism could be noticeable on the first day. Am I way off on this, or was his explanation questionable?
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