hamhurricane
Bluelighter
I was reading a review of some legal proceedings related to PCP where the author noted PCP is a schedule II substance in the United States, at first I thought this was an error, but then realized the author was correct. Given that a schedule II drug is partially characterized by having "a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States or a currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions" and the vast majority of Schedule II drugs are used in some medical capacity (with a few exceptions e.g. phenmetrazine, methorphan, phenazocine) why was PCP saved from placement in schedule I and does it have any currently accepted medical use in the United States or elsewhere?
