Sturnam
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Aug 12, 2008
- Messages
- 738
So in a recent psychopharmacology overview, and they talked about how smoked cocaine produced the same plasma level as IV, but that people preferred smoked to IV.
I'm confused as to a few things.
First of all, why is smoking crack better than IV cocaine? Is there something special about cocaine that makes smoking better than IV? It seems like almost every other drug of abuse has vastly increased abuse potential and increased "high" and "liking" by the IV route. Especially with the same plasma levels, there must be something that makes smoking special.
Also, in general, how can smoking hit faster than IV? I know the basics of how the drug is absorbed in the lungs and then immediately pumped out to the body, but it seems like IV would be faster onset. It is simply skipping the step of the lungs absorbing the drug. Does a drug get bound to red blood cells if inhaled, which aids in the perceived rush?
Or is the rush more dependent on the time it takes? If you were to inject say 50 units of water+drug, would that small time delay be enough to affect the rush vs crack, where you get a dose in 1 hit?
Smoked cocaine has the fastest rate of onset, followed by
intravenous, intranasal, and oral routes (see Bigelow and
Walsh 1998 ). Smoked cocaine also produces greater
increases in ratings of “high” and “liking” than i.v. cocaine
despite equivalent cocaine plasma levels and is preferentially
self-administered when participants are given a choice
between smoked versus i.v. cocaine (Foltin and Fischman
1991, 1992).
I'm confused as to a few things.
First of all, why is smoking crack better than IV cocaine? Is there something special about cocaine that makes smoking better than IV? It seems like almost every other drug of abuse has vastly increased abuse potential and increased "high" and "liking" by the IV route. Especially with the same plasma levels, there must be something that makes smoking special.
Also, in general, how can smoking hit faster than IV? I know the basics of how the drug is absorbed in the lungs and then immediately pumped out to the body, but it seems like IV would be faster onset. It is simply skipping the step of the lungs absorbing the drug. Does a drug get bound to red blood cells if inhaled, which aids in the perceived rush?
Or is the rush more dependent on the time it takes? If you were to inject say 50 units of water+drug, would that small time delay be enough to affect the rush vs crack, where you get a dose in 1 hit?
