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homprenorphine

(zonk) said:
I hate opiates and most people that do them.
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That's a really awful thing to say. There's many people who use opiates as prescribed, and even if they don't, to say you hate someone for having an addiction is an extremely immature attitude that propagates the social harms of narcotic addiction. Opioids are very important compounds for modern medicine, and if you ever suffer from severe pain I doubt you will have the same attitudes towards the medicines and the people that use them.
 
I was googling this and came across a chinese vendor/manufacturer that sells fentanyl. Is it possible to actually have some of that shit delivered and not end up in jail? Anybody done it?

Also for the sake of staying on topic that thread on opiophile about this has a really good reply at the end that says why this chem would still be illegal in the states. Does anyone know if the same things he said would apply in canada?
 
Fentanyl is illegal in the US too. All of these drugs are illegal here thanks to the analogue act.
 
I dont dislike people who need opiate medication, I hate people who act like cranky assholes, sit there picking/scratching their skin off, puking everywhere, nodding out with cigarettes burning holes in everything, then begging for or stealing cash so they dont feel sick becuz they dont know how to b responsible(it's not a big secret how opiates effect people's lives in the 1st place). and yeah...I hate crackheads too;) .

Buprenorphine is scheduel 3 or 4 so homprenorphine is not illegal under the analog act
 
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Buprenorphine is scheduel 3 or 4 so homprenorphine is not illegal under the analog act
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Sometimes I can't tell if stupid statements like this are meant as jokes or are serious.

Yes, buprenorphine is schedule III. Etorphine is not. Neither is morphine or codeine or any of the other phenanthrene opioids it is closely related to.
 
^^By that logic ketamine analogs would be illegal as they are PCP analogs then. phenethylamine is an analog of amphetamine too then?
 
(zonk) said:
^^By that logic ketamine analogs would be illegal as they are PCP analogs then. phenethylamine is an analog of amphetamine too then?
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I don't think phenethylamine classifies as an amphetamine analogue. It's the other way around, amphetamine is an analogue of phenethylamine. See, if you can arrive into an analogue by both adding and removing substituents then virtually anything can be considered an analogue of anything else. So obviously it can't work that way...

Then again, from what I gather about the weird US analogue laws, it seems pretty much anything can be declared illegal if someone is getting high off it...
 
(zonk) said:
well i guess it is an agonist, but how potent is it, is it a full mu agonist, has anyone ever taken it is really what i'm trying to get at
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Cyclopropyl group gives antagonist propeties, such as buprenorphine.
So I guess it's an antagonist.
 
^^It seems like that's the most likely scenario, I'm just wondering how much of an antagonist vs agonist it is.

amapola said:
I hate everyone!
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LOL! I guess opiate threads are touchy subjects, I never seen so much shite since the loperamide threads. Perhaps this thread is worthless, I had my reasons but... whatev8)
 
(zonk) said:
^^By that logic ketamine analogs would be illegal as they are PCP analogs then. phenethylamine is an analog of amphetamine too then?
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Yeah, in the US ketamine analogue es are illegal because of their similarity to PCP. When their are multiple scheduled compounds a drug is derived from you don't just get to choose which compound you want it to be an analogue of. Do you seriously believe that if I'm selling deschloroketamine the DEA won't consider it controlled under the analogue act because it might be more similar to ketamine than PCP? Of course they're going to consider it controlled.

Of course if a new compound is an analogue of a schedule III drug, which is itself an analogue of a schedule I drug, the new compound isn't invariably controlled. If there was substantial enough difference in both steps (from CI to CIII and from CIII to New Drug) the new drug might only be an analogue of CIII. It seems unlikely, though.

Phenethylamine is certainly an analogue of amphetamine, but it doesn't produce the same effects as amphetamine without an additional drug being added. It's possible that the DEA would consider it to be an analogue, but it's hard to guess if "substantially similar" counts "substantially similar only if taken with an MAOI.

Whoever said that "it doesn't work that way, that amphetamine is an analogue of phenethylamine, but not the other way around" seriously needs to think harder. PEA is a homologue of AMP, and vice versa. They're analogues of eachother as well.


Edit: Additionally, as I said earlier, it's most likely a partial agonist because of the n-cyclopropylmethyl group, similar to buprenorphine. I would be a bit surprised if it were an antagonist, though.
 
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