Wikipedia says ketobemidone "also has some NMDA-antagonist properties."
It's not unreasonable to suspect that a ligand like 1 will follow suit. Infact, i'd say that it appears likely. The fact that the m-phenol analog of 1 is a μ-antagonist is in alignment with dissociative SAR's and not phenylpiperidine SAR's. The 2-phenethyl products ofcourse are tremendously powerful opioids, and any NMDA activity in these will be cowering. Again, that only stands correct for the p-substituted products; the bare phenyl nucleus compounds lack analgesic potency.
Consider the following multiple choice question: Which statement best describes 1?
(a) μ-agonist.
(b) NMDA antagonist.
(c) None of the above.
(d) All of the above.
I'd say that (d) best describes 1 but this is purely conjectural.

Consider the following multiple choice question: Which statement best describes 1?
(a) μ-agonist.
(b) NMDA antagonist.
(c) None of the above.
(d) All of the above.
I'd say that (d) best describes 1 but this is purely conjectural.