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could methadone mask benzo w/d?!?

hookedonclonics

Greenlighter
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Sep 30, 2009
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Soviet Canuckistan
Hi bluelighters,
okay, I have been taking methadone for about 3 years now at 41mls per day. Back in july I took way too many clonazepam and upon cessation for 2.5 days experienced w/d symptoms. I reinstated at .75mgs a day at the beginning of october and have been steadily been decreasing my dose by water titration. As of today I'm at the equivalent of 1mg of valium. During this taper I've felt w/d but it's been very manageable.
However I have heard a few anecdotes about opiates masking benzo withdrawal. Most of these stories involve suboxone. I have theories on this that involve naloxone, but I won't get into that in this post so as not to distract from the thrust of it.
Methadone is a NMDA antagonist. I was very alarmed to discover that NMDA antagonists have been used (in studies at least) to quell withdrawal from benzos, as the abstracts from the papers below demonstrate.
My question is: could it be possible that my methadone could be masking my symptoms of benzo withdrawal? If this is the case, how should I proceed? Should I wait a year to taper from the methadone? Are my receptors healing during this time or should I expect benzo withdrawal to hit me then?
Thanks everyone.
HOC

From wikipedia:
Methadone is a full µ-opioid agonist. Methadone also binds to the glutamatergic NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptor, and thus acts as a receptor antagonist against glutamate. Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS. NMDA receptors have a very important role in modulating long term excitation and memory formation. NMDA antagonists such as dextromethorphan (DXM), ketamine (a dissociative anaesthetic, also M.O.A+.), tiletamine (a veterinary anaesthetic) and ibogaine (from the African tree Tabernanthe iboga, also M.O.A+.) are being studied for their role in decreasing the development of tolerance to opioids and as possible for eliminating addiction/tolerance/withdrawal, possibly by disrupting memory circuitry. Acting as an NMDA antagonist may be one mechanism by which methadone decreases craving for opioids and tolerance, and has been proposed as a possible mechanism for its distinguished efficacy regarding the treatment of neuropathic pain.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Methadone

Recent research has demonstrated that the receptor for glutamate, a major excitatory neurotransmitter, may play an important role in the expression of benzodiazepine withdrawal signs. This proposal is based on various observations. For example, antagonists for N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA), non-NMDA and metabotropic glutamate (mGlu) receptors can suppress the behavioral signs of benzodiazepine withdrawal in mice and rats. Furthermore, the NMDA receptor in the cerebrocortical area of diazepam-withdrawn rats is upregulated. Finally, the stimulation of phosphoinositide hydrolysis mediated by mGluR is enhanced in cerebrocortical slices from lorazepam-withdrawn mice. These findings show that the upregulation of signal transduction mediated by glutamate receptors during diazepam withdrawal plays a role in the neuroadaptive response responsible for the expression of diazepam withdrawal signs. Furthermore, ligands for glutamate receptors may be suitable targets for treating benzodiazepine withdrawal signs.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/10580363?dopt=AbstractPlus

Long-term treatment leads to tolerance to and dependence on benzodiazepines. Abrupt termination of benzodiazepine administration triggers the expression of signs of dependence. Mice withdrawn from chronic treatment with diazepam showed a time-related evolution of anxiety, muscle rigidity, and seizures between days 4 and 21 after treatment discontinuation. A period between withdrawal days 1 and 3 was symptom-free. Surprisingly, during this "silent phase" the susceptibility of mice to alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-tert-butyl-4-isoxazolepropionate (ATPA) and kainate seizures and the magnitude of monosynaptic reflexes mediated by non-N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) mechanisms were enhanced. In apparent contrast, the "active phase", between withdrawal days 4 and 21, was characterized by increased susceptibility to NMDA seizures and enhanced magnitude of polysynaptic reflexes, which are NMDA dependent. Treatment of mice with alpha-amino-3-hydroxy-5-methyl-4-isoxazolepropionate (AMPA) antagonists 1-(4-aminophenyl)-4-methyl-7,8-methylenedioxy-5H-2,3-benzodiazepine (GYKI 52466) or 2,3-dihydroxy-6-nitro-7-sulfamoylbenzo(f)quinoxaline but not with the NMDA antagonist 3-[(+/-)-2-carboxypiperazin-4-yl]-propyl-1-phosphonate (CPP) during the silent phase prevented signs of dependence. In contrast, treatment with CPP but not with GYKI 52466 during the active phase prevented the symptoms. The development of tolerance to and dependence on diazepam was prevented by concurrent treatment of mice with CPP but was not prevented by GYKI 52466. These data indicate that NMDA-dependent mechanisms contribute to the development of tolerance to diazepam and to the expression of signs of dependence in mice after termination of long-term treatment with diazepam. Nevertheless, the non-NMDA-mediated silent phase is essential for triggering the symptoms. Therefore, AMPA antagonists may offer a therapeutic approach for preventing dependence on benzodiazepines that is an alternative to NMDA antagonism.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC47038/#reference-sec
 
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I puked my guts out the last time I tried this (d/c 1mg alprazolam tid while on 120 mg methadone qam ==> SUV full of puke & pissed-off wife)

I haven't read your whole post (I'm in class); I'm just responding to your title.
 
Been thinking a bit more about this. This is BilZ0r from an ancient thread:

Well benzos don't act on a G-protein coupled receptor, so their down-regulation mechanism is different. But it's a similar theme if my memory serves. By the receptor spending more time in a active state, it allows protein kinases to phosphorylate certain sites on the GABA-A receptor (or the receptors where the benzos have bound) which leads to internalization of receptors.

"The exact mechanism remains unclear, but evidence shows that it is likely that prolonged benzodiazepine treatment renders GABA-A receptors insensitive to benzodiazepine modulation. It seems likely that this is primarily due to the receptor being pulled into an intracellular vesicle (internalization), presumabley after the action of a kinase. The receptor is then modulated in some way, possibly by removing benzodiazepine sensitive subunits, so that it is insensitive to benzodiazepines and returned to the membrane surface. It seems that only very high doses or very long treatments with benzodiazepines lead to a total decrease in GABA-A receptor number, and this may be through reduction in GABA-A receptor subunit mRNA expression[1]."

[1] Bateson AN. Basic pharmacologic mechanisms involved in benzodiazepine tolerance and withdrawal. Curr Pharm Des. 2002;8(1):5-21

I'm trying to synchronize this with my experience that methadone does NOT mask acute symptoms of benzodiazepine withdrawal (I am positive of this; I've been in numerous MMPs and this is a common dilemma for patients (myself included), especially since US clinics (I've found) usually try to force you off of the benzodiazepines whether you need them or not. After chronic, high-dose benzodiazepine use, the mechanism described above suggests that the body is not altogether capable of utilizing the ion channel's inhibitory role if benzos are discontinued. However, I've been on a steady benzo dose for the past 6 years and my tolerance has plateaued in such a way that the benzos are still effective.

If benzos are abruptly discontinued, the compensatory NMDA antagonist action of methadone is not sufficient to supplement the body's impaired or annhialated capacity of endogenous inhibition. I'm not going to source this because I've experienced it numerous times, and have seen the pattern repeated in others.

At lower doses (1mg diazepam qd is a tiny dose) you may be able to pull this off without too much discomfort, but I think you would've been able to pull it off cold turkey at that dose anyway (unless you are at risk of seizures).

In short, I don't think METHADONE is a viable surrogate for chronic high-dose benzodiazepine use. Would buprenorphine be any better? How so?

The world could sorely use such a medicine, though--one that restores the body's ability to utilize GABA signaling pathways without a xenobiotic GABA ligand.
 
Been thinking a bit more about this. This is BilZ0r from an ancient thread:



I'm trying to synchronize this with my experience that methadone does NOT mask acute symptoms of benzodiazepine withdrawal (I am positive of this; I've been in numerous MMPs and this is a common dilemma for patients (myself included), especially since US clinics (I've found) usually try to force you off of the benzodiazepines whether you need them or not. After chronic, high-dose benzodiazepine use, the mechanism described above suggests that the body is not altogether capable of utilizing the ion channel's inhibitory role if benzos are discontinued. However, I've been on a steady benzo dose for the past 6 years and my tolerance has plateaued in such a way that the benzos are still effective.

If benzos are abruptly discontinued, the compensatory NMDA antagonist action of methadone is not sufficient to supplement the body's impaired or annhialated capacity of endogenous inhibition. I'm not going to source this because I've experienced it numerous times, and have seen the pattern repeated in others.

At lower doses (1mg diazepam qd is a tiny dose) you may be able to pull this off without too much discomfort, but I think you would've been able to pull it off cold turkey at that dose anyway (unless you are at risk of seizures).

In short, I don't think METHADONE is a viable surrogate for chronic high-dose benzodiazepine use. Would buprenorphine be any better? How so?

The world could sorely use such a medicine, though--one that restores the body's ability to utilize GABA signaling pathways without a xenobiotic GABA ligand.
Hey,
Thanks for the response.
I'm not at risk for seizures. I've only tapered myself down to .055mgs of clonazepam since October. I had to stabilize on .75mgs after I went on the binge. I'm water titrating the dose down and will finish in about 3 weeks.
It seems hard to believe that meth would work in such a fashion and I thought I'd see a bunch of thread here about this aspect. Especially given the sheer amount of MMT people that also take benzos.
So you tried to taper your benzo before or stopped cold turkey? I would like to hear of yours and other experience. Do you think the meth played ANY factor at all in your reaction?
What if the benzo isn't discontinued cold; what if it's tapered properly: would the compensatory action of NMDA antagonism be sufficient then to somewhat control symptoms?
Like I said, most of the anecdotes I've heard involve suboxone. If true, I think this may have something to do with naloxone. I see LDN is used to treat MS, CFS, and others that easily match the profile for benzo w/d sxs.
I will relate one dramatic anecdote here: this person was taking 2mgs of clon qd which they c/t in August. They surprisingly felt perfectly fine after this. During this time they also took suboxone which they began to taper in around Jan/Feb. After this taper was complete (a fairly rapid taper lasting 1 or 2 months I think, although that may be reasonable as I'm not that familiar with sub) they got hit with PAWS which they claim more closely resembles the PAWS from benzos then from Sub.
Thanks,
HOC
PS- would you be able to link me to the above quoted thread?
 
would you be able to link me to the above quoted thread?

http://www.bluelight.ru/vb/archive/index.php/t-233607.html

That thread is about tolerance, but the information is relevant here. A lot of excellent stuff in the ADD archives--among the internet's best. It's not all Variations on a Theme by Shulgin or "Is (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-N-(2-hydroxyethyl)icosa-5,8,11,14-tetraenamide safe to combine with (6aR,9R)-N-((2S,5S,10aS,10bR)-10b-hydroxy-2-isopropyl-3,6-dioxo-5-tert-pentyloctahydro-2H-oxazolo[3,2-a]pyrrolo[2,1-c]pyrazin-2-yl)-7-methyl-4,6,6a,7,8,9,10,10a-octahydroindolo[4,3-fg]quinoline-9-carboxamide?"

The 55 micrograms of clonazepam thing is a typo, right?

If your benzo dose is approaching planck's constant, the opioid activity of methadone is probably more than enough to make you not give a shit.

What's on your mind regarding naloxone?
 
http://www.bluelight.ru/vb/archive/index.php/t-233607.html

That thread is about tolerance, but the information is relevant here. A lot of excellent stuff in the ADD archives--among the internet's best. It's not all Variations on a Theme by Shulgin or "Is (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-N-(2-hydroxyethyl)icosa-5,8,11,14-tetraenamide safe to combine with (6aR,9R)-N-((2S,5S,10aS,10bR)-10b-hydroxy-2-isopropyl-3,6-dioxo-5-tert-pentyloctahydro-2H-oxazolo[3,2-a]pyrrolo[2,1-c]pyrazin-2-yl)-7-methyl-4,6,6a,7,8,9,10,10a-octahydroindolo[4,3-fg]quinoline-9-carboxamide?"

The 55 micrograms of clonazepam thing is a typo, right?

If your benzo dose is approaching planck's constant, the opioid activity of methadone is probably more than enough to make you not give a shit.

What's on your mind regarding naloxone?
Funny stuff! My days of reading Shulgin are long gone and formula hurt my brain. Never been my strong suit.
That 55 micrograms is still 1.1mgs of valium eq. I don't think I'm ready to jump ship quite yet. This crap scares me more than anything I think.
Re:naloxone (or naltrexone for that matter)
I've read before about someone getting sub to detox off of benzos. Have you ever heard of such a thing or know what would be the logic behind it?
Also the anecdote I relayed above; I thought maybe the research being done into LDN may be the key to understanding it and just wondered if you ever heard of it being used for this purpose or if it made pharmacological sense...
 
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