kaosisallwesee
Bluelighter
My friend gets oramorph and i get codeine. we argue over which is better orally, he insists morphine, I say codeine.
My reasoning for this is this...
I was reading about the BA of morphine and 10% is pretty shitty, now codeine is a pro-drug to morphine and converts at a rate of 10% in the average person.
so wouldn't 100mg, for eg, of each be equivalent to eachother? In terms of amount of morphine ending up in the blood stream?
If this is the case why are doctors so clueless when it comes to dosage for oramorph?
My mate has Hodgkins lymphoma, hes had it for 6-7 years and constantly undergoing treatment, he gets 600ml of oramorph for every 10-14 days.
Hes meant to take 5-10ml (10-20mg) as a dose, no more than 50ml (100mg) a day.
100mg would only be 10 mg when not plugged/injected, so he just drinks it like water.
My reasoning for this is this...
I was reading about the BA of morphine and 10% is pretty shitty, now codeine is a pro-drug to morphine and converts at a rate of 10% in the average person.
so wouldn't 100mg, for eg, of each be equivalent to eachother? In terms of amount of morphine ending up in the blood stream?
If this is the case why are doctors so clueless when it comes to dosage for oramorph?
My mate has Hodgkins lymphoma, hes had it for 6-7 years and constantly undergoing treatment, he gets 600ml of oramorph for every 10-14 days.
Hes meant to take 5-10ml (10-20mg) as a dose, no more than 50ml (100mg) a day.
100mg would only be 10 mg when not plugged/injected, so he just drinks it like water.
