Nom de Plume
Bluelighter
Dosage and frequency are different, therefore generally regarded as abuse..!!
1. Are natural and genetic intraspecific discrepancies in dosage and frequency of a biogenic substance considered abuse? That is to say, does Bob's genetically greater, relative to the mean or norm, frequency and dosage of an endogenous compound X meet society's arbitrary and ill-defined criteria for abuse of said compound X or is this an exceptional circumstance? Why?
2. What is the average dosage and/or frequency of testosterone in the human body? If unknown or unknowable, how does one compare the degree of these two variables for physiological production with that of artificial administration?
3. What is the objectively defined difference or differences between drug use and drug abuse?
4. Why does "drug abuse" automatically equate to cheating, insofar as one can even objectively measure and determine abuse of a drug (as opposed to the absence or presence of a drug in one's system like modern drug testing does)?
5. What does one make of the person with a naturally below-average production of some biogenic substance who artificially uses just enough of that substance to be average? Is this abuse or not? Why?
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