Newbie McNewbersen
Greenlighter
- Joined
- Mar 30, 2014
- Messages
- 2
Hello,
Let's say that someone who does not regularly use any substances (other than alcohol) and who had not used any substance in a few years, decided to take 360mg of codeine. Let's say that this person felt very little in the way of pleasant or enjoyable effects and basically only felt a little light headed and a little sedated.
Would this mean that this person is not able to enjoy pleasant effects from opiates for some reason? If this person were so inclined, would it be worthwhile for them to try a different opiate in the hopes of experiencing a different effect?
Thank you.
Let's say that someone who does not regularly use any substances (other than alcohol) and who had not used any substance in a few years, decided to take 360mg of codeine. Let's say that this person felt very little in the way of pleasant or enjoyable effects and basically only felt a little light headed and a little sedated.
Would this mean that this person is not able to enjoy pleasant effects from opiates for some reason? If this person were so inclined, would it be worthwhile for them to try a different opiate in the hopes of experiencing a different effect?
Thank you.
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