Is it possible that the process of excitotoxicity would only kill certain neurons leaving others unaffected? I can understand that if the glutamatergic storm only takes place in one place then only that place is affected, but I'm not talking about brain loci now, I'm talking about specific neurons. For example, it is claimed that excitotoxicity plays a role in Parkinson's, so it seems to me like yes, excitotoxicity can only affect certain neurons (as only dopaminergic neurons are killed). But how does this work then? I mean, how can the excess glutamate/whatever excitotoxin that is causing the excitotoxicity discriminate between different neurons? I have no particular interest in Parkinson's, but I feel it's a great example.
Trying to understand how excitotoxicity might contribute to a certain pathology, that's why I'm asking. Suppose that one does not respond at all to agonists of certain receptors. The question is, could the neurons of these receptors be actually dead, and could this have been caused by excitotoxicity.
Trying to understand how excitotoxicity might contribute to a certain pathology, that's why I'm asking. Suppose that one does not respond at all to agonists of certain receptors. The question is, could the neurons of these receptors be actually dead, and could this have been caused by excitotoxicity.
