TCMVegas
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Nov 22, 2012
- Messages
- 147
This seems like a relatively unexplored, as well as interesting topic. Let's see what useful results we can come up with.
Dopamine receptors fall into two groups, in terms of functionality. D1-like and D2-like.
D1 agonism increases adenylyl cyclase, which in turn raises adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D2 agonism decreases adenylyl cyclase, which in turnlowers levels of adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
Source: Wikipedia (unverified)
Since D1-like and D2-like receptors seem to have exactly opposite effects according to this, I'm not sure how to make sense of it. A hypothesis I have is that a postsynaptic cell gets to express these receptors at it's own ratio, so that the reaction to increased dopamine can be different in different cells.
The goal of this thread is to dive into the behavioral effects of selectively upregulating D2 receptors. This could be induced by antipsychotics, which I believe are all selective for D2.
Would upregulating D2 via antipsychotics maintain stimulant efficacy? Or is the seemingly-inevitable D1 downregulation going to singlehandedly be responsible for stimulant tolerance?
Dopamine receptors fall into two groups, in terms of functionality. D1-like and D2-like.
D1 agonism increases adenylyl cyclase, which in turn raises adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
D2 agonism decreases adenylyl cyclase, which in turnlowers levels of adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
Source: Wikipedia (unverified)
Since D1-like and D2-like receptors seem to have exactly opposite effects according to this, I'm not sure how to make sense of it. A hypothesis I have is that a postsynaptic cell gets to express these receptors at it's own ratio, so that the reaction to increased dopamine can be different in different cells.
The goal of this thread is to dive into the behavioral effects of selectively upregulating D2 receptors. This could be induced by antipsychotics, which I believe are all selective for D2.
Would upregulating D2 via antipsychotics maintain stimulant efficacy? Or is the seemingly-inevitable D1 downregulation going to singlehandedly be responsible for stimulant tolerance?
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