I have taken as many as 4 of them at a time-- you NEVER get a high on the new formula. People on the "methadone' formula felt great-- LOL many of them declared it their new drug of choice... it was quite amusing.
I am a retired anesthesiologist with NO license-- as in I can't order or do anything--- I am just like the rest of you ....I have no license to do squat...
I am actually loving this discussion-- it's so nice to have knowledgeable people give suggestions that actually make some sense!! Thanks... I guess that's why I joined here.
Oh and sorry I put the website on-- I had a feeling that was a no no-- but at the time I didn't know it was a way to get opiates...
So, for now-- the FDA has cornered a shipment to the US-- and they say it has a prescription med in it-- no word if it is a controlled substance-- but they are after the Canadian sender-- who was just sending the formula to a friend in the US. She's going to spill about it..why take the blame when you didnt know what you were sending..... So... there IS something in our mystery drug...
hmmmm interesting. So if this report is correct, then there is indeed a "prescription drug" contained in this formula- though prescription does not necessarily mean opioid related.
It just occurred to me that tramadol or one of its analogs might be the active in this formula- though the OP claims that users do not get any sort of high when taking it, only relief from withdrawal. If tramadol or an analog were involved, you would expect to feel something more from it (especailly for those that are not opioid dependent).
The more I think about and read about this Chinese Formula, the more I am intrigued. To the OP-is it known for a FACT, that the original formula (which apparently did get people high), contained methadone?
If it is indeed a fact that first formula contained methadone, then there are one of 2 possibilities...either of which confuse the hell out of me.
So, assuming formula #1 did have methadone and got people high. If this is the case, its pretty damn hard to imagine that there exists this new formula (which all reports I've read assert that this new formula is just as effective at totally eliminating withdrawal), doesn't contain any opioid at all. It just doesnt make sense. You'd have to believe that someone made some BS formula and threw methadone in it to make it effective against withdrawal, and then when he was caught, he was able to reformulate the product without any opioids, and still produce something that was totally effective against withdrawal. It just doesnt make any sense. If he had an "opioid-free" effective formula in the first place, why go through the trouble and risk of adding methadone.
Now the other alternative initially seems far more likely, and yet there is a major problem with this as well. Initially it would seem FAR more likely, that considering methadone was in the first formula, and that this new formula remains just as effective at alleviating withdrawal, he simply swapped methadone for a different synthetic opioid in this formula. However, if this were the case, how can it be explained that every report I've seen asserts that while this new formula totally eliminates withdrawal, it does not provide ANY sort of high. I even read a few reports from those that are not opioid dependent, and they state that they got no high at all from this product.
So, if the manufacturer simply added a different synthetic opioid to this formula that is strong enough and in high enough conentrations to completely alleviate withdrawal, how could there be no discernable "high" felt by those who take the formula?
Are there any opioid out there which will stop withdrawal in its tracks, but not produce any sort of "high"-even amongst opiate-naive individuals?
The only thing I can think of that even comes close to having this sort of profile is a partial agonist or mixed agonist/antagonist. For those on bupe maintenance, bupe totally keeps withdrawal at bay, but does not provide any real effect. However, I am not aware of any partial agonists (including bupe) that would not produce a high in an opiate-naive individual.
If you were to somehow get around this apparent problem of this formula being effective at stopping withdrawal, but not capable of producing a high, then I would be almost certain that we are looking at a partial agonist similar to bupe. Almost all users of this formula mention that they are unable to feel the effects of any opioid until several days after taking the formula. This would suggest some sort of partial agonist or mixed agonist/antagonist, with a very high affinity for opioid receptors, and a very long half-life.
It REALLY does sound just like bupe (though its clearly not bupe since people swallow these pills and bupe isn't orally active). However, even if it were a bupe-like substance that was orally active...how do you explain the fact that no one, not even non-opiate dependant individuals, feel any "high" from this.
Really really confusing.-DG