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Why is this not working? Using a lot of opiates

Enigma5

Greenlighter
Joined
Feb 19, 2016
Messages
1
Hello all, I'm brand new here and I have a question for anyone who can help the best they can. I know a gal who took 80mg of methadone yesterday and today has plugged 24mg of dilaudid, sniffed 6mg of the same, and is currently wearing a 100mcg fentanyl patch. Obviously her pain gone, but there was no rush, warmth, or high that everyone speaks about. Does anyone know why? It was all done correctly, and completed all within one hour. Now does this gal just have the tolerance of an elephant, or could this gal have done something wrong, although she was very careful to read up and learned as much as possible. Any suggestions, or possible answers, this gal will take any information at this point. Thank you.
 
I had the same thing happen on Wednesday with 60mg of hydrocodone--not a thing happened...but I suspect it was from an ariprazole tablet I had taken on Monday morning at five am to potentiate the effects of lisdexamfetamine later that day. This has happened before to me. I take ability and lamictal tablets sometimes when I can't sleep and they TOTALLY kill effects from drugs. Like I go to smoke in the morning and it's like I'm smoking air. Does your friend take any drugs that block ion channels or dopaminergic neurotransmission ie anticonvulsant moodstabilizers such as lamictal, depakote, tegretol, or antipsychotics like risperdal, geodon, ability etc. Anything to antagonize the narcotics? it seems to me she's getting the mu agonism in terms of pain relief but something's blocking the resulting dopaminergic effects like it did to me.
 
I had the same thing happen on Wednesday with 60mg of hydrocodone--not a thing happened...but I suspect it was from an ariprazole tablet I had taken on Monday morning at five am to potentiate the effects of lisdexamfetamine later that day. This has happened before to me. I take ability and lamictal tablets sometimes when I can't sleep and they TOTALLY kill effects from drugs. Like I go to smoke in the morning and it's like I'm smoking air. Does your friend take any drugs that block ion channels or dopaminergic neurotransmission ie anticonvulsant moodstabilizers such as lamictal, depakote, tegretol, or antipsychotics like risperdal, geodon, ability etc. Anything to antagonize the narcotics? it seems to me she's getting the mu agonism in terms of pain relief but something's blocking the resulting dopaminergic effects like it did to me.
What about adderall? Yes I know this is an old post, but could anybody help me?
 
What about adderall? Yes I know this is an old post, but could anybody help me?
Every "antipsychotic"/neuroleptic will render dopamine agonists or dopamine reuptake inhibitors useless. This types of drugs are, among otherr things "dopamine antagonists". This is cause for psychosis working hypothesis is that underlining cause is "dopamine imbalance". But unlike "serotonin imbalance hypothesis" used for explaining depression, in "dopamine imbalance hypothesis" too high levels of dopamine (not too low of serotonin like in the case of depression) are causing the disorder. So if you are taking "antipsychotic" in doses that are usually prescribed for some psychotic disorder then you can forget amphetamines properly working - cause your dopamine receptors are blocked (saturated by molecule that does not activate them).

Best analogy would be naltrexone and opioids. If you're on 50mg of oral naltrexone and you take it in the morning - taking opioids (hydrocodone, ocycodone, morphine...) later that day will not "work". They will be "blocked" by opioid antagonist that you took in the morning. If you want to feel pleasurable effects that bring euphoria like analgesia, sedation, anxiolisys, warmth...only thing you can do is wait until naltrexone leaves your opioid receptors. And that will depend on how much of opioid antagonist you have circulating your body. In this scenario where one takes 50mg oral naltrexone in the morning by the evening of the next day opioids should be "working" again.

For dopamine receptor antagonists (antipsychotics) it will depend on the type and it's "duration of action" (which is closely related to half-life of a particular agent) but overall story is very similar. Untill it leaves your body in a meaningful percentage you will not feel the effects of Aderall or other dopaminergic drugs. We are all different but after 5-6 half lifes percentage of the drug in your bloodstream falls below 1% and has negligible effects.

I could and probably should made this post shorter but I hope that you don't mind my rant and that I have answered your question.

Take care!
 
Last edited:
Methadone starts to block other opioids at around 40-50mg / 70-80mg at steady dosing will nearly completely block all other opioids. Oxycodone 80mg X 4 tablets injected and I felt absolutely nothing while being on Methadone 80mg for a year.
 
Every "antipsychotic"/neuroleptic will render dopamine agonists or dopamine reuptake inhibitors useless. This types of drugs are, among otherr things "dopamine antagonists". This is cause for psychosis working hypothesis is that underlining cause is "dopamine imbalance". But unlike "serotonin imbalance hypothesis" used for explaining depression, in "dopamine imbalance hypothesis" too high levels of dopamine (not too low of serotonin like in the case of depression) are causing the disorder. So if you are taking "antipsychotic" in doses that are usually prescribed for some psychotic disorder then you can forget amphetamines properly working - cause your dopamine receptors are blocked (saturated by molecule that does not activate them).

Best analogy would be naltrexone and opioids. If you're on 50mg of oral naltrexone and you take it in the morning - taking opioids (hydrocodone, ocycodone, morphine...) later that day will not "work". They will be "blocked" by opioid antagonist that you took in the morning. If you want to feel pleasurable effects that bring euphoria like analgesia, sedation, anxiolisys, warmth...only thing you can do is wait until naltrexone leaves your opioid receptors. And that will depend on how much of opioid antagonist you have circulating your body. In this scenario where one takes 50mg oral naltrexone in the morning by the evening of the next day opioids should be "working" again.

For dopamine receptor antagonists (antipsychotics) it will depend on the type and it's "duration of action" (which is closely related to half-life of a particular agent) but overall story is very similar. Untill it leaves your body in a meaningful percentage you will not feel the effects of Aderall or other dopaminergic drugs. We are all different but after 5-6 half lifes percentage of the drug in your bloodstream falls below 1% and has negligible effects.

I could and probably should made this post shorter but I hope that you don't mind my rant and that I have answered your question.

Take care!
Sorry i didn't make it all the way through your post.. I've got a pretty bad headache. I'm taking everythinga little at a time.The adderall has been working fine. The pain medication has not been working... and I have not been taking all of the antidepressants or the lithium... so if I start taking those will it make my pain medication work worse.
 
Methadone starts to block other opioids at around 40-50mg / 70-80mg at steady dosing will nearly completely block all other opioids. Oxycodone 80mg X 4 tablets injected and I felt absolutely nothing while being on Methadone 80mg for a year.
 
Methadone starts to block other opioids at around 40-50mg / 70-80mg at steady dosing will nearly completely block all other opioids. Oxycodone 80mg X 4 tablets injected and I felt absolutely nothing while being on Methadone 80mg for a year.
Sorry I thought you were the same person
 
Every "antipsychotic"/neuroleptic will render dopamine agonists or dopamine reuptake inhibitors useless. This types of drugs are, among otherr things "dopamine antagonists". This is cause for psychosis working hypothesis is that underlining cause is "dopamine imbalance". But unlike "serotonin imbalance hypothesis" used for explaining depression, in "dopamine imbalance hypothesis" too high levels of dopamine (not too low of serotonin like in the case of depression) are causing the disorder. So if you are taking "antipsychotic" in doses that are usually prescribed for some psychotic disorder then you can forget amphetamines properly working - cause your dopamine receptors are blocked (saturated by molecule that does not activate them).

Best analogy would be naltrexone and opioids. If you're on 50mg of oral naltrexone and you take it in the morning - taking opioids (hydrocodone, ocycodone, morphine...) later that day will not "work". They will be "blocked" by opioid antagonist that you took in the morning. If you want to feel pleasurable effects that bring euphoria like analgesia, sedation, anxiolisys, warmth...only thing you can do is wait until naltrexone leaves your opioid receptors. And that will depend on how much of opioid antagonist you have circulating your body. In this scenario where one takes 50mg oral naltrexone in the morning by the evening of the next day opioids should be "working" again.

For dopamine receptor antagonists (antipsychotics) it will depend on the type and it's "duration of action" (which is closely related to half-life of a particular agent) but overall story is very similar. Untill it leaves your body in a meaningful percentage you will not feel the effects of Aderall or other dopaminergic drugs. We are all different but after 5-6 half lifes percentage of the drug in your bloodstream falls below 1% and has negligible effects.

I could and probably should made this post shorter but I hope that you don't mind my rant and that I have answered your question.

Take care!
I think I replied to the wrong person, but I really needed more info about this topic
 
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