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What is wrong with the MDMA available today?

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Correctly produced MDMA has absolutely no harsh comedown. Whether you take 100 mg.s or 500 mg.s, the comedown is as soft as a feather. You feel warm and lovey dovey the entire time, right up to the point you fall asleep like a little baby. You will sleep for roughly 4-6 hours and will wake up feeling the most anti-depressed you've ever felt in your life. The following day will be filled with conversation and wanting to get out and hang with friends or just drive around, listen to music and enjoy the beautiful day. You feel fantastic the entire day.

Umm. No -- Mid 1990s -- this never happened, sorry. Perhaps your personal experience -- but being cracked (whacked) out on 'scooby snacks' (Fun Lovin Criminals 1996 shout out) was a known and accepted side effect


With this new type of MDMA being produced nowadays, you will feel like crap on the comedown. You may feel confused or geeked out, almost like a crack or meth comedown. Sleep will be difficult if at all. The next day you will still feel fucked up from the night before and not in a good way. You won't want to go anywhere or talk to anyone. Again, you'll still feel like a crackhead on the comedown the entire next day. You'll spend most of the day in full recovery. Good times.

That's it. And that should sum it up for those that have never tried properly produced MDMA. Does that help?

Le Junk

Umm, that is exactly what happens after taking regular MDMA
 
Perhaps stop thinking like an industrial chemist and start thinking like what it really is. Fastest route to make money, shortest and most efficient conversion. Yeh we all know that the route is to MDP2P but if the process is not refined and clean it's gonna have impurity and as keeps getting suggested their could well be some imbalance in the racemic. Shulgin did it for science. He did it properly and his process followed for many years. Now we already know changes of precursor so makes perfect sense they ain't being as careful as Shulgin.


Umm Shulgin described multiple routes in PHIKAL

1. MDA
2. PMK
3. PMK from isosafrole
4. PMK from piperonal and nitromethane


which is his proper process??
 
This would explain the high doses in the pills as the r isomer is less potent and known to produce mongy effects.

current e-data does not have any MDMA test results that are not simply based on Marquis, Mecke, Mandelin -- which won't even differentiate between MDE/MDA, and MDMA (you need Simon's for that).

The only results that list dose are sent in by party-safe and reference HPLC, not GCMS, so it is time and adsorbent dependent.

Lastly,

Per Shulgin, The r isomer didn't even result in a +1 at 200 mg. Much less result in a comedown or cracked out next day.
 
current e-data does not have any MDMA test results that are not simply based on Marquis, Mecke, Mandelin -- which won't even differentiate between MDE/MDA, and MDMA (you need Simon's for that).

The only results that list dose are sent in by party-safe and reference HPLC, not GCMS, so it is time and adsorbent dependent.

Lastly,

Per Shulgin, The r isomer didn't even result in a +1 at 200 mg. Much less result in a comedown or cracked out next day.

I didn't go back and look it up....but I'm pretty sure that shulgin concluded that there was a very REAL difference between the 50 50 raceemate and pure S. He said that although the S was the active isomer....that the racimate gave a 'full" experience that was lacking in pure S.

So the r has some sort of inherent effect whether it be agonism itself or outcompetion of s mdma or a metabolite. Then start tweaking the ratio of r to s outside of 50 50 and things can get very complicated.
pharmacology is very complicated it could be doing lots of shit we would never hypothesize even though pure r gives little effects on its own
 
current e-data does not have any MDMA test results that are not simply based on Marquis, Mecke, Mandelin -- which won't even differentiate between MDE/MDA, and MDMA (you need Simon's for that).

The only results that list dose are sent in by party-safe and reference HPLC, not GCMS, so it is time and adsorbent dependent.

Lastly,

Per Shulgin, The r isomer didn't even result in a +1 at 200 mg. Much less result in a comedown or cracked out next day.
Noone is saying its producing pure r isomer but a different racemic mix that is giving these mongy effects. Read biscuits post.
 
Noone is saying its producing pure r isomer but a different racemic mix that is giving these mongy effects. Read biscuits post.

There is plenty out there that produces the effects expected, at a dose of 125-150 mg.

There is also stuff being touted as MDMA that is substituted cathinone.

If you come up in 10-20 minutes, have a relatively weak ride with no 'love' and its over in 2 hours -- substituted cathinone.
 
Noone is saying its producing pure r isomer but a different racemic mix that is giving these mongy effects. Read biscuits post.

I read it.

Any synth using MDP2P regardless of how the MDP2P was prepared, will produce a 50/50 racemic mix.

The only way to get one isomer is to use a chiral catalyst, or use a chiral acid to precipitate the isomer you want, and throw the other half of your product away.

its not cheaper or easier to make stereo isomer pure MDMA.

Finally, the supposed "boogeyman" PMK-gly is identified as the pathway from piperonal to MDP2P in 1990 (with no mention of chirality)
https://www.erowid.org/archive/rhodium/chemistry/mda.dalcason.html
 
^ Have you read the other thread that I linked on the page before though? There is a greater amount of scientific discussion about the various possibilities on that thread. I won't attempt to repeat all of that on this thread too. In that thread I suggested a couple of explanations for why a non-racemic mixture of MDMA might be produced from the glycidate even though this should not occur because perfectly good MD-P2P is capable of being produced from the glycidate - as you quite correctly identify. The other thing I said in the thread is the possibility that the glycidate is a red herring and the manufacturers have switched to a new catalyst which just happens to be stereoselective.

I am aware of the Rhodium article you mentioned - thank you for raising it. There is no issue arsing with chirality in that example because it is assumed that the chemist is going to properly purify the MD-P2P produced. If this is not done, which is where I believe the problem must lie, then where does that leave us?

I found another page on Rhodium's site which may well be instructive - https://www.erowid.org/archive/rhodium/chemistry/mda.hey.html:

- In the first part of the experimental section, "3,4-Methylenedioxybenzyl Methyl Ketone" (aka MD-P2P), it is clear that the method to isolate and purify the ketone is fairly involved, requiring multiple steps and even refluxing and vacuum distilling with copper powder! I wonder how many large scale manufacturers even have copper powder in their labs. A review of the website selling the glycidate and the manner in which they spruik how easy it is to turn this "legal" substance into a "ketone", implies to me that not all of these steps are being suggested and therefore are unlikely going to be followed. I just don't see the large scale manufacturers going to such trouble; if this is indeed correct, then given all that is produced in the glycidate --> ketone transformation, can anyone confidently rule out the possibility that any subsequent reductive amination to MDMA might just favour the production of one isomer over the other.

I am the first to admit that everything that I and others have stated about this matter are simply theories, although they are theories which are based on a large body of evidence - pharmacological, chemical, specific known facts such as the mega dutch labs switching to this precursor, and the continual supply of anecdotal information which seems remarkably consistent. At the end of the day, the sudden massive increase in the dosage of MDMA contained in so many of these pills speaks loudest of all and rest assured the manufacturers aren't going to be doing it just because they want to give the customer a better deal at the expense of their own bottom line.

As a person with knowledge of matters relating to chemistry and law enforcement, it frustrates me to no end that there hasn't been anyone to date who knows a government forensic chemist or the chemists who perform the work for ecstasydata.org, who could be requested to determine the enantiomeric ratio of a few test samples, tests which would prove once and for all whether any of this is correct or not.

This type of testing is routinely done and not difficult for those labs set up to do it. Determining the D:L or S:R ratio of seized quantities of amphetamine, methylamphetamine and MDMA is often a necessary component of police investigations into drug manufacture and/or distribution, where being able to chemically match different batches of seized drugs with others or with the lab that produced them, provides vital evidence in any prosecution of this nature. No it isn't done for every lab test for every drug that is seized. But believe me it is done every time the police need the chemists to conduct this chemical comparison exercise for any cases where such evidence is deemed important.

To give you an idea about how superficial our knowledge is in this area, mine included and I have a degree in it, take a look at this incredible journal article which considered a multitude of different ways in which chiral and non-chiral amphetamine could be produced, with the vast majority being routes that most people, even with an interest in drug chemistry, would never have heard of. What is clear is that there are many methods for making a non-racemic mix of amphetamine from precursors which, on first blush at least, would be assumed to only be capable of manufacturing racemic amphetamine: http://www.nwafs.org/newsletters/SyntheticAmphetamine.pdf.

I trust providing a link to this journal article, which in a published scientific journal, does not offend the guidelines. Frankly, the chemistry discussed in here is so complicated that even someone with a degree such as myself, couldn't possibly take it and suddenly start cranking out amphetamine etc. However, the point is well made, that even if there was only a quarter of this number of potential routes to make MDMA, the possibility of making chiral MDMA from new precursors which are being reacted in all sorts of possible ways that are anyone's guess, seems not only possible but probable.
 
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I trust providing a link to this journal article, which in a published scientific journal, does not offend the guidelines. Frankly, the chemistry discussed in here is so complicated that even someone with a degree such as myself, couldn't possibly take it and suddenly start cranking out amphetamine etc. However, the point is well made, that even if there was only a quarter of this number of potential routes to make MDMA, the possibility of making chiral MDMA from new precursors which are being reacted in all sorts of possible ways that are anyone's guess, seems not only a possibility but probable.


Except it's not a new precursor. PMK gly - MDP2P has been known for decades

PMK-gly to MDP2P -- has fewer steps than the classic sassafras oil => safrole => isosafrole => MDP2P

Nothing after the MDP2P is controlled so why would they use some weird process or catalyst with unknown yield?

What is much more likely is:

1. It's not MDMA (even with marquis, mecke, and mandelin it could easily be MDEA, or another MDXX that isn't a cathinone)

2. It's a much lower dose

3. It's both
 
^ I agree it has been known for decades but it wasn't used when access to PMK itself was common.

How is (1) or (2) possible when all of the lab tests say otherwise. ecstasydata.org lists many of them; all MDMA and many with very high doses, including those which people have complained about. If it weren't for the lab results which are known, then I doubt this discussion would even have arisen as your suggestions would be the most sensible place to start.

If it wasn't clear already, I don't profess to know the answer. I am just interested in discussing the possibilities and trying to find a clear answer to this issue. None of us really know for certain otherwise the discussion wouldn't need to occur. I would be more than happy for someone to prove me, and many others one here, wrong. Of course if that occurred, then I suspect those that swear black and blue that there has been a change, would then need to spend another couple of years discussing a new possible explanation.
 
^ I agree it has been known for decades but it wasn't used when access to PMK itself was common.

How is (1) or (2) possible when all of the lab tests say otherwise. ecstasydata.org lists many of them; all MDMA and many with very high doses, including those which people have complained about. If it weren't for the lab results which are known, then I doubt this discussion would even have arisen as your suggestions would be the most sensible place to start.


Because that isn't the case. The lab results are not actually known

Go look on e-data, the ones with mg listed don't have the actual tests - they simply reference saferparty and some alleged HPLC testing (all those pills are in Vienna/Bern/Zurich)

In fact, I went back JAN 2015 and the ONLY pills with any actual mg of MDMA mentioned are from Zurich/Bern/Vienna or 'Austria'

ALL the other tests are reagent, not GCMS -- GCMS is the only way to be sure it is MDMA and only MDMA. Any other chemicals present will be identifed by extra peaks.

(HPLC can show MDMA, but with HPLC the MDMA is usually extracted with a solvent, so any adultrants are not necessarily identified)

Furthermore -- i can without reservation assure you that MDMA is just as good as it used to be
 
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The high from this MDMA takes about 10-15 minutes to take effect and the high is always the same.

Unless you are snorting it -- that's not MDMA.

However, many substituted cathinones and piperazines do have an onset time of 10-15 minutes

Sorry -- even from completely dissolved powder in liquid 30-35 minutes is the shortest onset for MDMA.
 
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If you come up in 10-20 minutes, have a relatively weak ride with no 'love' and its over in 2 hours -- substituted cathinone.

How would one test for this? Assuming you have that experience but the pills test fine with Marquis, mandolin, Meckie, Simons & Robatest?
 
Yeah that's my other problem even with your double-blind experiment you did.

Were both of the samples GCMS tested and proved to be pure MDMA? How do we know the purity of each sample was the same, and if they weren't, that the dosages were adjusted correctly to deliver the same amount of MDMA to each participant? Was every person given the exact same number of milligrams of MDMA per kg of their body weight or was it a flat dose? Was everyone's tolerance at the same level? Really it should be done with participants who have never tried MDMA. And how do we know that the MDMA samples were actually any different, we should surely start the experiment with two samples that we know to have different chirality or some other objective difference, rather than basing the decision of which samples to use on a previous subjective experience. Even with these steps in place it would be hard to determine how much of what is reported back is just from subjective experience vs an objective cause, you'd need a huge sample size.

Not trying to be mean or anything but noting in this thread proves anything. And I know for a fact that fantastic MDMA is available and in production.
 
Because that isn't the case. The lab results are not actually known

Go look on e-data, the ones with mg listed don't have the actual tests - they simply reference saferparty and some alleged HPLC testing (all those pills are in Vienna/Bern/Zurich)

In fact, I went back JAN 2015 and the ONLY pills with any actual mg of MDMA mentioned are from Zurich/Bern/Vienna or 'Austria'

ALL the other tests are reagent, not GCMS -- GCMS is the only way to be sure it is MDMA and only MDMA. Any other chemicals present will be identifed by extra peaks.

(HPLC can show MDMA, but with HPLC the MDMA is usually extracted with a solvent, so any adultrants are not necessarily identified)

Furthermore -- i can without reservation assure you that MDMA is just as good as it used to be


So to clarify things for me , ecstasy data never uses GCMS ? Their testing isn't any better than myself using reagents ?

Also , in this discussion are you saying that a product could be made that tests as mdma , but actually not be mdma ?

Sorry for the layman questions , but in this discussion I am a layman. My comments come from 20 years of using mdma .
 
So to clarify things for me , ecstasy data never uses GCMS ? Their testing isn't any better than myself using reagents ?

Also , in this discussion are you saying that a product could be made that tests as mdma , but actually not be mdma ?

Sorry for the layman questions , but in this discussion I am a layman. My comments come from 20 years of using mdma .

Can't say never, but all I saw was reagent.

Click on a result -- you will see reagent tests.

Yes, if you use Marquis, Mecke, and Mandelin -- MDA, MDE, MDMA (and APB-5/6) will all test the same you really need simon's and/or folin

Also, a little bit of MDMA with a lot of something else (that does not react) will test like MDMA -- for example mephedrone (barely) and also the piperazines (BZP, mCPP, TFMPP) don't react with with those 3 tests , so a pill with a little MDMA and lots of mephedrone/piperazines will test MDMA -- same with alpha PVP

5-APB and 6-APB both test black on all three, so people will take that as a positive MDMA result

https://m.reddit.com/r/ReagentTesting/comments/3xee8g/how_to_use_a_reagent_testing_kit_read_this_if/
 
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How would one test for this? Assuming you have that experience but the pills test fine with Marquis, mandolin, Meckie, Simons & Robatest?

If it passed all 5, it could also be a piperazine with a tiny bit of MDMA/MDEA.

Possibly an X-APB as well.

A 10-20 minute come up from oral administration should tell you right away it's not MDMA
 
I read it.

Any synth using MDP2P regardless of how the MDP2P was prepared, will produce a 50/50 racemic mix.

The only way to get one isomer is to use a chiral catalyst, or use a chiral acid to precipitate the isomer you want, and throw the other half of your product away.

its not cheaper or easier to make stereo isomer pure MDMA.

Finally, the supposed "boogeyman" PMK-gly is identified as the pathway from piperonal to MDP2P in 1990 (with no mention of chirality)
https://www.erowid.org/archive/rhodium/chemistry/mda.dalcason.html


It may be cheaper to use a catalytic reductive amination because it gets higher yields under the conditions of this process synthesis. Also it may be a very cheap reduction catalyst thats forming an in situ chiral catalyst via coordination of a glycidic impurity to the metal mechanistic organic chemistry can be much more complicated than making assumptions that limit what can be happening in the reaction mixture, I don't think you're giving the complexity of what can be happening with every thing in the flask enough credit....maybe this in situ chiral catalyst only gives a slight enantiomeric excess....nobody is saying that it gives pure R stereoismer...just a ratio that isn't 5050

Another possibility:
Somewhere along the reaction you now have significant amounts of r and s mdma forming.....plus a chiral glycidic impurity...plus more unreacted mdp2p....which is 2 chiral materias that could be doing some 3rd order process with the mdp2p favoring a chiral glycine/R(orS)MDMA/mdp2p intermediate....which produces more R or S mdma preferentially because it forms a more active catalytic species or lower energy transition state. the reaction order can get even higher also....this is just given as an example to show how complex mechanisms can be and there are plenty of studies showing how complicated catalysis really is and not a simple 2nd order process like people assume

Another possibility;
the chiral glycidic impurity could corrdinate to the Mdp2p oxygen...activating it for reduction and making it a chiral substrate favoring the formation of r or s mdma.



The chances that an in situ chiral catalyst is forming from a non chiral catalyst by the glycidic impurity coordinating to the catalyst or the ketone before/during the reduction of MDp2p is very possible. There are many examples of forming in situ chiral catalysts by the pre mixing of a chiral ligand and an non chiral catalyst in the literature....tons of examples in all different kinds of catalystic chemistry including reductions

Since this is process chemistry....there is very little possiblity that any purification is being done until the final prododuct is made. Most good large scale synths for pharmaceuticals used in industry don't require purification of the intermediates because its way too costly and time consuming, either the chemistry is all clean or purification is not needed inbetween steps....hence there may be a glycidic impurity carried all the way to the reductive amination step
 
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Finally, the supposed "boogeyman" PMK-gly is identified as the pathway from piperonal to MDP2P in 1990 (with no mention of chirality) [/SIZE][/SIZE][/SIZE][/SIZE]https://www.erowid.org/archive/rhodium/chemistry/mda.dalcason.html


And? Unless the MDMA produces of today are using the EXACT same reaction conditions (solvents temperatures reagents and scale) as whoever used PMK glycidate in the past....the products produced could greatly differ....reaction conditions can totally change the game in chemistry....the fact that two different synths start with the same reagent means nothing
 
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