Brivaracetam is a new anti-epileptic drug that has been placed on schedule V in the US. As such, it is the first illegal racetam. According to the DEA's scheduling action:
https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/FR-2016-05-12/pdf/2016-11245.pdf
Page 3
My question is why does this happen. It seems to be just a more potent levetiracetam analogue, and its purported mechanism is a little confusing to me:
What is meant by "reverse inhibition" here?
Human studies have
reported that healthy individuals may
experience euphoria, sedation, and a
drunken-like feeling following BRV
administration... In a human
abuse potential study, the oral abuse
potential, safety, tolerability, and
pharmacokinetics of BRV (50 mg, 200
mg, and 1000 mg) were compared to 1.5
and 3.0 mg of the schedule IV CNS
depressant alprazolam (ALP) and
placebo. When surveyed, for all doses of
BRV, there was an increase of drug
likability, feeling of a high, and taking
the drug again in comparison to
placebo. The HHS mentioned that
individuals who took BRV had fewer
sedative, euphoric, stimulant, dizziness,
and overall negative subjective effects
compared to ALP.
https://www.gpo.gov/fdsys/pkg/FR-2016-05-12/pdf/2016-11245.pdf
Page 3
My question is why does this happen. It seems to be just a more potent levetiracetam analogue, and its purported mechanism is a little confusing to me:
BRV
selectively binds with high affinity to
synaptic vesicle protein 2A (SV2A). It
produces reverse inhibition caused by
negative modulators of gamma
aminobutyric acid (GABA) and glycine
and inhibits sodium (Na+) channels.
These sites appear to underlie
pharmacological activity of BRV.
What is meant by "reverse inhibition" here?