Checking what you guys think is a safe dose for both on someone not taking opiates every day. I was thinking 2mg for both? Maybe 1mg for the Oxymorphone?
Hmm, I've mostly done heroin, and hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is more potent than heroin. I do know that the usual starting dose of injectable hydromorphone for opiate-naive patients is 1 - 2 mg, but in a hospital this would be given intramuscular or subcutaneous. So I'd probably wanna do less for IV.
Also depends on what opiates you usually use, how often (you say you're not a daily user) and in what amounts.
My first time shooting a Dilly was a 2 mg pill. I had a very low opiate tolerance at the time. it was blissful and not scary at all. Before I took that, I've may have taken a morphine pill intermittently over the last couple months. But nothing everyday and very big.
Also I have had 4 surgeries on my knee prior and have eaten plenty of percocet within that time. But it's been years since i've had surgery. I know sometimes opiates can build up a tolerance long term, But not sure if that would play a role in taking something like that several years after.