jakoz
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Feb 18, 2001
- Messages
- 3,140
Something I was just thinking about, from something I remember reading...
From the
Drug Testing Methods FAQ:
Now I cant find more info, but I thought I remembered reading that a fairly high percentage of positives to the first test are false, and (now it gets worrying) that the labs do not *have to* send the sample for confirmation with the GC-MS test, and that many often dont to cut costs.
I hope that they would not be that reckless, or that there would be legislation against it... can anyone confirm or deny this? Also of interest: if this was true, you could probably demand a retest if you could prove that they skipped the GC-MS, even if it was a real positive.
From the
Drug Testing Methods FAQ:
Tests performed and 'positive' levels
There are two main tests performed: the immunoassay, and the GC-MS test (Gas Chromatography - Mass Spectrometry). Other tests such as Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC) are used but they are relatively rare. Typically, an immunoassay is first used on a sample. If the substances they are looking for are above a certain level, a GC-MS is called for. If those substances are above another level on the GC-MS, you have a positive test for that substance.
Now I cant find more info, but I thought I remembered reading that a fairly high percentage of positives to the first test are false, and (now it gets worrying) that the labs do not *have to* send the sample for confirmation with the GC-MS test, and that many often dont to cut costs.
I hope that they would not be that reckless, or that there would be legislation against it... can anyone confirm or deny this? Also of interest: if this was true, you could probably demand a retest if you could prove that they skipped the GC-MS, even if it was a real positive.