After reading about the whole CTZ part of why opiates induce nausea, its interesting.... because the meth obviously did help. however because the nausea had already kicked in, it was..... confusing to describe. the meth basically masked its effects by some form of pharmakokinetik action i guess.
I also read about the medications used as anti-emetics, and oddly enough, the changes meth induces was opposite of the anti-emetics. such as:
- anticholinergic agents
- antidopaminergic agents
- 5-HT3 antagonists
- H1 antihistamines
- cannabinoids
- corticosteroids
- benzodiazepines
- NK-1 antagonists
If you notice, meth increases most neurochemicals and physiological effects that the above list is working to reduce, or to do the opposite. Also, I've noticed a lot of anti-emetic medications involve some form of dopamine inhibition as well, which i think is interesting. So maybe I'm not conveying this information accurately. But its interesting to me that meth still helped with the nausea despite it basically did the opposite of the general theme of anti-emetics in more than one way. If i'd known that prior to experience, i'd suggest meth would make the nausea terrible.
So maybe it just eases the opiates off of the CTZ? or it masks its effects with the pharmokonetik properties of meth.... definitely unknown to me. Something i'd like to understand better. That was the initial reason of this thread, because i already knew about why opiates cause nausea by way of the CTZ, so i didnt want to be removing sedation with a stimulant all the while not changing the CTZ reaction, figured it would make nausea worse.....
Here's a quote from a website describing the CTZ for those who dont know:
"The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), is a ventricle in the brain that is triggered when it detects substances not meant to be in the blood. It’s located in the medulla oblongata, and it works by receiving input from drugs or hormones and triggering other areas of the brain to induce vomiting. There are certain neurotransmitters that can be triggered when someone takes opioids, which is why opiates cause nausea and vomiting. Basically, if someone is nauseous from opiates, it’s probably because their CTZ detected that and sent a message that it was a toxic chemical."
EDIT: On another note, I was uncertain at the time, how they would mix with the nausea set in from the CTZ and the opposing CNS actions of the two. I know they mix nicely, and i can do more downers with stimulants and visa versa. But there are so many variables i'd want to sit down with a pharmacist to discuss lol. So back to my reason for adding the side note, I had also taken Hydroxyzine later followed by some valium, smallest effective dose of each (ime). So its to say that the relief of the nausea was from those two medications. however i took both orally, and snorted the meth. and while i snorted the meth, i felt a sort of immediate relief as the rush set in. but also the nausea came back. so another half line, and same thing. I only did about one more line after that. And i noticed the nausea was about 70% better about the time i'd expect the pills i took orally to start kicking in. So i'm thinking there was a mix of the fact that the opioid induced nausea was starting to fade, all the while everything else was happening.
To conclude, my experiences cannot be used as a valid example.